# CompTIA A\+ 220\-1201 & 220\-1202 Flashcards: Core 1 and Core 2 ![A generic laptop and computer repair tools arranged on a dark technical workbench with abstract network lights\.]() Review current CompTIA A\+ V15 Core 1 and Core 2 objectives with original flashcards for hardware, networking, operating systems, security, commands, and troubleshooting\. By author [Open Study Contributor]() [Study this deck for free]() Nibomo opens so you can start studying\. ## Deck details - Cards: 520 cards - Version: 1 - Published: September 1, 2026 - Last updated: September 10, 2026 - License: Common knowledge · CC0 1\.0 - Audience languages: [en]() - Subject: Information technology - Level: A\+ 220\-1201 and 220\-1202 - Tags: a\-plus, core\-1, core\-2 ## About this deck ### CompTIA A+ 220-1201 & 220-1202 Flashcards: Core 1 and Core 2 Review the current V15 knowledge behind both CompTIA A+ exams in one 520-card package: 270 cards for Core 1 and 250 for Core 2. The deck covers mobile devices, networking, hardware, virtualization, cloud concepts, operating systems, security, commands, software support, operational procedures, and troubleshooting. #### What the cards practice The cards connect technologies, components, protocols, commands, and common acronyms with their purposes and key behavior. Separate retrieval prompts also work in the useful opposite direction: a technician task or requirement points to the right tool, setting, command, connector, or protocol. Short support scenarios ask for a likely cause, the first useful check, or the next corrective action. Ordered workflows are practiced only when the order matters on the job. The deck does not mechanically reverse every fact or turn every source bullet into a card. It leaves out low-value acronym production, giant list prompts, unstable click paths, advanced material beyond the V15 entry-level boundary, and near-duplicate wording made only to increase the count. #### Learning order Core 1 starts with mobile hardware and connections, then builds through networking, physical hardware, virtualization, and cloud concepts before applying them to hardware and network troubleshooting. Core 2 moves from operating-system foundations into tools, commands, configuration, security, software troubleshooting, and day-to-day support operations. Inside each topic, recognition comes before selection and short diagnosis. Related forward and reverse cards are kept apart so one prompt does not give away the next. #### Labs and PBQs Flashcards are useful for recall and compact scenario decisions. They do not reproduce hands-on labs, performance-based questions, live command output, or the pressure and ambiguity of the certification exams. Use a real machine, lab environment, and lawful practice tests alongside this deck for installation, configuration, repair, and PBQ-style work. #### Scope, provenance, and reuse The live CompTIA Core 1 and Core 2 V15 pages and the current version 4.0 objective PDFs were reviewed on September 1, 2026. Both PDFs were last modified on November 25, 2025. They were used only to check the exam version, domain boundaries, weighting, and technical scope. Common technical facts are explained in original language and organized for retrieval practice. Public overview pages from three study tools were compared only for structure and learner expectations; their cards, questions, examples, explanations, and course text were not drafting input. The `Common knowledge · CC0 1.0` label applies to the deck’s original prompts, answers, organization, metadata, and generated cover to the extent applicable rights exist. It does not claim ownership of technical facts, CompTIA names, or third-party source material. This deck is independently authored and unofficial. It is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or sponsored by CompTIA, Inc., and it uses no CompTIA logo or official trade dress. No CompTIA exam questions, answers, performance-based questions, mark schemes, or objective wording were copied. Current official requirements: [Core 1 V15 (220-1201)](https://www.comptia.org/en-us/certifications/a/core-1-v15/), [Core 1 objectives PDF](https://lecbyo.files.cmp.optimizely.com/download/34be017cb73211ef8985a6f347fbf652), [Core 2 V15 (220-1202)](https://www.comptia.org/en-us/certifications/a/core-2-v15/), and [Core 2 objectives PDF](https://lecbyo.files.cmp.optimizely.com/download/cefedfb2b8a511ef809306d06d323538). ## Similar decks - [CompTIA Security\+ SY0\-701 Flashcards: Complete Objective Review]() - [Anatomical Directional Terms Flashcards: 10 Core Terms with Examples]() - [CompTIA Network\+ N10\-009 Flashcards: Concepts, Operations & Troubleshooting]() - [Ham Radio Technician Flashcards: 90 Core Concepts for 2026\-2030]() - [Division Flashcards 1–12: All 144 Facts]() - [AP Physics 1 Flashcards: Complete 8\-Unit Course Review]() ## Cards in this deck ### Card 1 **Question** What is the safe response to a swollen mobile-device battery? **Answer** Power the device off, disconnect external power, and isolate it for approved battery service. Don't charge, puncture, press, or keep using the battery. ### Card 2 **Question** Which RAM form factor is common in serviceable laptops? **Answer** A SO-DIMM. Match its DDR generation, capacity support, and other platform requirements before installation. ### Card 3 **Question** What should you confirm before replacing laptop keys or a keyboard? **Answer** Confirm the model's replaceable unit and service procedure. Some keys are individually serviceable; other designs require the keyboard or full top case. ### Card 4 **Question** What protects data during a laptop HDD or SSD replacement? **Answer** A verified backup and migration plan. Also match the replacement drive's interface, form factor, and supported capacity. ### Card 5 **Question** How should tiny antenna leads be handled during wireless-card service? **Answer** Label their positions, lift each connector straight up with the proper tool, and reconnect it to the marked terminal. Pulling the wire can damage the lead. ### Card 6 **Question** Which built-in laptop components commonly provide physical privacy or identity checks? **Answer** Components such as fingerprint or facial-recognition hardware and near-field credential readers. Their firmware, drivers, permissions, and enrollment must all support the feature. ### Card 7 **Question** Why does Wi-Fi antenna placement matter after a laptop repair? **Answer** Correct routing and terminal placement preserve signal quality. A pinched cable, loose connector, or swapped main/aux lead can weaken wireless performance. ### Card 8 **Question** A replacement laptop camera has no image. What should you check before replacing it again? **Answer** Check its internal cable, privacy shutter or switch, firmware detection, driver, and app permission. A hardware replacement won't fix a blocked camera setting. ### Card 9 **Question** A built-in mobile-device microphone is silent. What should you check first? **Answer** Check the selected input, mute state, app permission, and microphone opening. Then inspect the internal connection if every app fails. ### Card 10 **Question** Why disconnect the internal battery before replacing laptop RAM, storage, or a display assembly? **Answer** To remove standby power from the board and reduce short-circuit risk. Follow the model's shutdown and battery-disconnection procedure. ### Card 11 **Question** What should guide any field replacement inside a thin mobile device? **Answer** The manufacturer's service instructions, warranty terms, and ESD precautions. Adhesives, hidden cables, and replaceable assemblies vary by model. ### Card 12 **Question** How do USB-C, microUSB, and miniUSB differ? **Answer** They are different connector shapes. USB-C is reversible; microUSB and miniUSB are older keyed designs, and none of the shapes alone guarantees a data speed. ### Card 13 **Question** What can a laptop docking station add through one host connection? **Answer** Power, displays, networking, storage, and peripheral ports. The host, dock, cable, and software must support the promised features. ### Card 14 **Question** What must match for a stylus to support pressure or precision input? **Answer** The stylus technology and the device's digitizer. A generic capacitive stylus may act like a finger but can't add unsupported active-pen features. ### Card 15 **Question** Which connector is associated with many older Apple mobile devices? **Answer** Lightning. Match the cable to the actual model because newer Apple devices may use USB-C. ### Card 16 **Question** How do a headset, external speaker, and webcam extend a mobile workstation? **Answer** A headset adds private audio input/output, a speaker adds room audio, and a webcam adds video input. Select each one in the app after connecting it. ### Card 17 **Question** How do a trackpad, drawing pad, and trackpoint differ? **Answer** A trackpad senses finger gestures, a drawing pad captures pen input, and a trackpoint moves the pointer from a small keyboard-mounted stick. ### Card 18 **Question** What is NFC commonly used for on a mobile device? **Answer** Very short-range exchanges such as tap-to-pay, credential reading, or quick pairing. Its short working distance supports deliberate tap-style use. ### Card 19 **Question** How is a port replicator different from a full docking station? **Answer** A port replicator mainly exposes additional connectors; a dock commonly adds broader capabilities such as charging, displays, or networking. Verify the product's actual feature list. ### Card 20 **Question** Which connection is the usual choice for nearby mobile headsets and keyboards? **Answer** Bluetooth. It provides short-range wireless accessory links with relatively low power use. ### Card 21 **Question** What does mobile tethering or hotspot mode do? **Answer** It shares the device's internet connection with another client, commonly over Wi-Fi, USB, or Bluetooth. The carrier plan may limit tethering or data use. ### Card 22 **Question** How do 3G, 4G, and 5G relate on a mobile device? **Answer** They are cellular network generations. Newer generations can offer more capacity or lower latency, but the device, SIM or eSIM, plan, coverage, and local network determine service. ### Card 23 **Question** What is the practical difference between a SIM and an eSIM? **Answer** A SIM is a removable identity module; an eSIM stores a carrier profile in embedded hardware. Both associate the device with cellular service. ### Card 24 **Question** What sequence pairs a Bluetooth accessory safely? **Answer** Enable Bluetooth, put the accessory in pairing mode, select the intended device, confirm any PIN or code, and test the connection. ### Card 25 **Question** How do GPS and cellular location services complement each other? **Answer** GPS derives position from satellites, while cellular and nearby-network data can speed or assist location. App permission and device settings control access. ### Card 26 **Question** Which radios should you check when a phone has neither local Wi-Fi nor wide-area data? **Answer** Check Wi-Fi and cellular data separately, along with airplane mode. One radio can be disabled while the other remains available. ### Card 27 **Question** What should you verify when adding mail to a mobile device? **Answer** Verify the account, credentials, incoming and outgoing server settings, security method, and network access. A correct password can't repair a wrong server setting. ### Card 28 **Question** A phone can browse on Wi-Fi but not through its hotspot. What should you check? **Answer** Check that hotspot service is enabled, cellular data works, the plan permits tethering, and the client has the correct hotspot password. ### Card 29 **Question** How should you test a newly configured mobile connection? **Answer** Test the intended path and service: join the correct network or carrier, verify addressing or signal, then open the required app or destination. ### Card 30 **Question** What does mobile device management provide? **Answer** Central enrollment, device configuration, policy enforcement, corporate-app deployment, inventory, and approved remote actions. ### Card 31 **Question** How do corporate-owned and BYOD management profiles usually differ? **Answer** Corporate-owned devices normally allow broader organizational control; BYOD profiles should isolate managed work data and respect the user's personal data under policy. ### Card 32 **Question** What should be checked when calendar, contacts, or business mail stops synchronizing? **Answer** Check connectivity, account sign-in, sync scope, device time, storage, and service status before removing the account. ### Card 33 **Question** Why do data caps matter to mobile synchronization? **Answer** Large mail, cloud-storage, or app sync jobs can consume metered cellular data. Choose what syncs and whether Wi-Fi is required. ### Card 34 **Question** When is an MDM remote wipe appropriate? **Answer** When policy authorizes removal of protected data from a lost, stolen, retired, or reassigned device. Confirm the exact device and wipe scope first. ### Card 35 **Question** What is the point of separating corporate apps and data on a personal phone? **Answer** It lets the organization enforce work controls and remove managed data without treating the user's whole device as corporate property. ### Card 36 **Question** How do TCP and UDP differ? **Answer** TCP provides connection-oriented, ordered, acknowledged delivery; UDP sends low-overhead datagrams without built-in ordering or retransmission. ### Card 37 **Question** Which ports are associated with classic FTP? **Answer** TCP 21 carries control traffic, and TCP 20 is the traditional active-mode data port. FTP doesn't encrypt credentials or content by itself. ### Card 38 **Question** Which default port does SSH use, and what does it provide? **Answer** TCP 22. SSH provides encrypted remote command-line access and related secure services. ### Card 39 **Question** Which default port is traditionally used for SMTP server-to-server relay? **Answer** TCP 25. Mail clients commonly submit outgoing mail through a separate authenticated service. ### Card 40 **Question** Which port does DNS use? **Answer** Port 53: usually UDP for ordinary queries and TCP when the response or operation requires it. ### Card 41 **Question** Which ports carry DHCP client and server traffic? **Answer** UDP 68 for the client and UDP 67 for the server. A new client can broadcast before it has an address. ### Card 42 **Question** Which ports distinguish HTTP from HTTPS? **Answer** HTTP normally uses TCP 80; HTTPS normally uses TCP 443 and protects the session with TLS. ### Card 43 **Question** Which default port does POP3 use without TLS? **Answer** TCP 110. POP3 commonly downloads messages rather than synchronizing server-side folders like IMAP. ### Card 44 **Question** Which ports are associated with NetBIOS over TCP/IP? **Answer** Ports 137–139. Name service commonly uses 137, datagram service 138, and session service TCP 139. ### Card 45 **Question** Which default port does LDAP use? **Answer** Port 389, commonly TCP. LDAP provides directory queries and updates; protect credentials with an approved secure configuration. ### Card 46 **Question** Which default port does SMB/CIFS commonly use? **Answer** TCP 445. SMB commonly carries file and printer sharing. ### Card 47 **Question** Which default port does RDP use? **Answer** TCP 3389. RDP provides remote graphical access to a Windows system. ### Card 48 **Question** Which default port does Telnet use, and why is it avoided on untrusted networks? **Answer** TCP 23. Telnet sends remote-terminal traffic without SSH's encryption. ### Card 49 **Question** Which default port does IMAP use without TLS? **Answer** TCP 143. IMAP keeps mailbox state and folders synchronized on the server. ### Card 50 **Question** How do common 802.11 families map to Wi-Fi bands? **Answer** 802.11b/g use 2.4 GHz; 802.11a/ac use 5 GHz; 802.11n can use 2.4 or 5 GHz; 802.11ax can use 2.4 or 5 GHz, with Wi-Fi 6E extending it to 6 GHz. ### Card 51 **Question** What is the tradeoff when selecting a wider Wi-Fi channel? **Answer** A wider channel can carry more data but occupies more spectrum and may overlap more neighbors. Use a width that clients, regulations, and local conditions support. ### Card 52 **Question** What networking role does Bluetooth fill? **Answer** Short-range personal-area links for accessories and nearby devices. It trades range and throughput for convenience and relatively low power use. ### Card 53 **Question** How do the 2.4, 5, and 6 GHz Wi-Fi bands generally differ? **Answer** 2.4 GHz usually reaches farther but is crowded; 5 GHz offers more capacity with less wall penetration; 6 GHz adds clean spectrum for compatible devices but typically has the shortest reach. ### Card 54 **Question** How does NFC differ from general-purpose Wi-Fi? **Answer** NFC handles deliberate, very short-range exchanges; Wi-Fi provides a longer-range network connection with much higher throughput. ### Card 55 **Question** What should guide Wi-Fi channel selection? **Answer** Local regulations, a spectrum or Wi-Fi survey, channel width, band support, interference, and neighboring use. Choose from measured conditions, then retest where users work. ### Card 56 **Question** What is RFID used for? **Answer** Identifying or tracking tagged objects by radio. Readers can work with passive or powered tags at ranges set by the RFID system. ### Card 57 **Question** What distinguishes Wi-Fi 6E from ordinary Wi-Fi 6 operation? **Answer** Wi-Fi 6E permits compatible 802.11ax devices to use the 6 GHz band. Both the client and access point must support that band. ### Card 58 **Question** How do DNS and DHCP server roles differ? **Answer** DNS resolves names to records; DHCP leases IP configuration such as an address, mask, gateway, and DNS servers. ### Card 59 **Question** How do file and print servers centralize shared resources? **Answer** A file server hosts shared data and permissions; a print server manages printer queues, drivers, and access. ### Card 60 **Question** How do mail and web servers differ? **Answer** A mail server transfers or stores messages; a web server returns site or application content over HTTP or HTTPS. ### Card 61 **Question** Why would a network use both syslog and NTP servers? **Answer** Syslog centralizes event messages, while NTP aligns device clocks so those events have comparable timestamps. ### Card 62 **Question** How do AAA and database servers differ? **Answer** An AAA server handles authentication, authorization, and accounting; a database server stores and queries structured application data. ### Card 63 **Question** How do a spam gateway and a proxy serve different traffic? **Answer** A spam gateway filters mail flow; a proxy relays client requests and may enforce filtering, logging, or caching for supported services. ### Card 64 **Question** How do a UTM appliance and a load balancer differ? **Answer** A UTM combines gateway security controls; a load balancer distributes requests across service instances for capacity or availability. ### Card 65 **Question** Why do legacy and embedded network systems need cautious support planning? **Answer** They may have fixed software, limited interfaces, or long service lives. Isolate them, preserve required compatibility, and change them only within vendor and operational constraints. ### Card 66 **Question** What does SCADA monitor or control? **Answer** Industrial processes and equipment. Availability and physical safety requirements belong in every support decision. ### Card 67 **Question** Why are IoT devices often placed on a separate network? **Answer** Segmentation limits what an outdated or compromised device can reach and makes its traffic easier to manage. ### Card 68 **Question** Match DNS A, AAAA, CNAME, and MX records to their jobs. **Answer** A maps a hostname to IPv4, AAAA maps it to IPv6, CNAME aliases one hostname to another, and MX identifies a domain's mail exchangers. ### Card 69 **Question** How do a DHCP scope and exclusion differ? **Answer** The scope defines the address pool and options DHCP can offer; an exclusion removes selected addresses from automatic leasing. ### Card 70 **Question** What does a VLAN create on switched infrastructure? **Answer** A logical Layer 2 broadcast domain. It separates traffic without requiring a different physical switch for every segment. ### Card 71 **Question** What does a VPN protect? **Answer** Traffic across an untrusted network by creating an authenticated encrypted tunnel. Endpoint security and resource permissions still matter. ### Card 72 **Question** How do DNS TXT records support SPF, DKIM, and DMARC? **Answer** TXT records publish mail-policy data: SPF lists authorized senders, DKIM exposes keys for signature checks, and DMARC sets alignment policy and reporting. ### Card 73 **Question** How do a DHCP lease and reservation differ? **Answer** A lease is a time-limited address assignment; a reservation consistently offers a chosen address to a specific client, usually by MAC address. ### Card 74 **Question** How do access and trunk switch ports handle VLANs? **Answer** An access port normally carries one endpoint VLAN; a trunk carries tagged traffic for multiple VLANs. ### Card 75 **Question** When would you choose a site-to-site VPN instead of a client VPN? **Answer** Choose site-to-site for a persistent protected link between networks; choose a client VPN for an individual endpoint connecting remotely. ### Card 76 **Question** How do routers and Ethernet switches differ? **Answer** A router forwards packets between IP networks; a switch forwards local frames using learned MAC-address locations. ### Card 77 **Question** What does a wireless access point do? **Answer** It bridges compatible wireless clients onto a wired LAN. Routing, DHCP, and internet access may come from other devices. ### Card 78 **Question** What is a patch panel's role? **Answer** It passively terminates and organizes permanent cable runs. Patch cords connect those runs to active equipment such as switches. ### Card 79 **Question** What is a firewall's core job? **Answer** It permits or blocks traffic according to security rules. Logs help explain why expected traffic was accepted or denied. ### Card 80 **Question** How do managed and unmanaged switches differ? **Answer** A managed switch exposes configuration and monitoring such as VLANs; an unmanaged switch provides basic switching with little or no administration. ### Card 81 **Question** How can PoE be supplied, and what must match? **Answer** A PoE switch or injector can supply it. The source standard, powered device, cable, per-port state, and total power budget must be compatible. ### Card 82 **Question** Match cable modem, DSL modem, ONT, and NIC to their access roles. **Answer** Cable and DSL modems terminate coax and telephone-copper services; an ONT terminates provider fiber; a NIC connects the host and carries its physical MAC address. ### Card 83 **Question** How do private and public IPv4 addresses differ? **Answer** Private ranges are used inside networks and aren't routed on the public internet; a public address is globally routable when assigned. NAT often translates between them. ### Card 84 **Question** What does a 169.254.x.x IPv4 address usually indicate? **Answer** APIPA self-assignment after the host failed to obtain DHCP configuration. Check the link and path to DHCP. ### Card 85 **Question** When should a SOHO device use static rather than dynamic IP configuration? **Answer** Use static or reserved addressing when a predictable endpoint is required; use DHCP for ordinary clients that can accept leased settings. ### Card 86 **Question** What does an IPv4 subnet mask tell a host? **Answer** Which address bits identify the local network. The host uses it to decide whether to send directly or through a gateway. ### Card 87 **Question** How does IPv6 addressing differ from IPv4 addressing? **Answer** IPv6 uses 128-bit hexadecimal addresses; IPv4 uses 32-bit dotted-decimal addresses. Both still require correct local and routing configuration. ### Card 88 **Question** What does a default gateway provide? **Answer** The next hop for destinations outside the local subnet. It is normally the local router interface for that network. ### Card 89 **Question** How do fiber, cable, and DSL internet access differ? **Answer** Fiber carries light and offers high capacity; cable uses a shared coax access network; DSL carries broadband over telephone copper and depends strongly on line distance and quality. ### Card 90 **Question** How do PAN, LAN, and WLAN differ? **Answer** A PAN links one person's nearby devices, a LAN serves a local site, and a WLAN is the wireless form of a local-area network. ### Card 91 **Question** When are cellular, WISP, and satellite internet useful? **Answer** Cellular uses mobile coverage, a WISP uses a terrestrial provider radio link, and satellite reaches beyond many ground networks. Signal, latency, limits, and availability guide the choice. ### Card 92 **Question** How do MAN and WAN scopes differ? **Answer** A MAN links sites across a city or metropolitan area; a WAN spans larger geographic distances and joins multiple networks. ### Card 93 **Question** What is a storage area network? **Answer** A SAN is a dedicated network that presents shared block storage to servers. It is different from an ordinary user LAN or file share. ### Card 94 **Question** Which tools prepare and terminate a modular copper cable? **Answer** A cable stripper removes the jacket; a crimper attaches a compatible modular plug. Use the intended pinout, then test the cable. ### Card 95 **Question** How do a punchdown tool and cable tester support a permanent cable run? **Answer** The punchdown tool seats conductors into an IDC block; the tester checks continuity and wire-map faults after termination. ### Card 96 **Question** How do a toner probe and loopback plug answer different network questions? **Answer** A tone generator and probe identify a cable's far end; a loopback plug tests whether a port can transmit and receive through its own interface. ### Card 97 **Question** How do a Wi-Fi analyzer and network tap differ? **Answer** A Wi-Fi analyzer measures nearby wireless networks and channels; a network tap exposes a link's traffic to monitoring equipment without becoming the endpoint. ### Card 98 **Question** How do IPS, TN, and VA LCD panels generally differ? **Answer** IPS favors color consistency and viewing angles, TN favors fast response at low cost, and VA favors contrast. Actual panel quality still varies. ### Card 99 **Question** How do OLED and Mini-LED displays produce light? **Answer** OLED pixels emit their own light; Mini-LED is an LCD that uses many small backlight zones. OLED can show deep blacks, while Mini-LED can reach high brightness without organic pixels. ### Card 100 **Question** What does a touchscreen digitizer do? **Answer** It detects touch or compatible stylus position. The display creates the image; the digitizer reports input coordinates. ### Card 101 **Question** What does an inverter do in an older LCD backlight system? **Answer** It converts power for the fluorescent backlight. Modern LED-backlit panels use different driver electronics. ### Card 102 **Question** How do screen resolution and pixel density differ? **Answer** Resolution is the number of addressable pixels; pixel density is how tightly those pixels fit in a physical area. Both affect perceived detail. ### Card 103 **Question** What do refresh rate and color gamut describe? **Answer** Refresh rate is how often the image can update each second; color gamut is the range of colors the display can reproduce. ### Card 104 **Question** How do Cat 5e, Cat 6, and Cat 6A Ethernet cable capabilities compare? **Answer** Cat 5e commonly supports 1 Gb/s to 100 m; Cat 6 improves noise performance and can support 10 Gb/s on shorter runs; Cat 6A is designed for 10 Gb/s to 100 m. ### Card 105 **Question** How do HDMI and DisplayPort fit typical display setups? **Answer** Both carry digital video and audio. HDMI is common on TVs and consumer equipment; DisplayPort is common on PCs and monitors, with features set by the negotiated versions. ### Card 106 **Question** What is the practical difference between T568A and T568B terminations? **Answer** They place the green and orange pairs in different pin positions. Use one recognized scheme consistently at both plug and punchdown-block terminations for a normal straight-through run. ### Card 107 **Question** Which cable ratings suit EMI, outdoor burial, and air-handling spaces? **Answer** Unshielded twisted pair suits ordinary low-interference runs, shielded twisted pair helps with EMI, direct-burial cable resists outdoor moisture, and plenum-rated cable limits flame spread and smoke in plenum spaces. ### Card 108 **Question** Match RJ11, RJ45, and F-type connectors to common cabling. **Answer** RJ11 is commonly used for telephone wiring, the 8P8C connector called RJ45 for twisted-pair Ethernet, and F-type for threaded coax connections. ### Card 109 **Question** How do DVI and VGA differ? **Answer** DVI variants may carry digital video, analog video, or both; VGA carries analog video through a 15-pin D-sub connector. ### Card 110 **Question** How do single-mode and multimode fiber differ, and which connectors may terminate them? **Answer** Single-mode uses a small core for long links; multimode uses a larger core for shorter links. ST, SC, and LC are connector styles that must match the link hardware and fiber type. ### Card 111 **Question** What should you infer from USB 2.0, USB 3.x, microUSB, miniUSB, USB-C, and Lightning labels? **Answer** USB 2.0 and 3.x describe protocol capabilities. MicroUSB, miniUSB, and USB-C are USB connector families; Lightning is a separate Apple connector. Plug shape alone doesn't guarantee speed or video support. ### Card 112 **Question** How do SATA, eSATA, and Molex relate to storage connections? **Answer** SATA carries internal drive data, eSATA extends SATA to an external connector, and a Molex plug is a legacy power connector. Data and power paths are separate. ### Card 113 **Question** Which legacy peripheral link commonly uses a DB9 connector? **Answer** A serial connection such as RS-232. It sends data sequentially and is still used for some console and industrial equipment. ### Card 114 **Question** When does a cable adapter need active electronics? **Answer** When the source and destination use different signaling, not just different plug shapes. A passive adapter only changes compatible wiring; an active adapter converts the signal. ### Card 115 **Question** Where are DIMM and SO-DIMM modules normally used? **Answer** Full-size DIMMs normally fit desktop or server boards; shorter SO-DIMMs fit many laptops and compact systems. ### Card 116 **Question** Why doesn't every USB-C cable provide Thunderbolt or display output? **Answer** USB-C names the connector. Thunderbolt, USB speed, charging level, and video alternate modes require matching support from the port, cable, and device. ### Card 117 **Question** Can one DDR memory generation be installed in another generation's slot? **Answer** No. DDR generations use different electrical designs and keying, so the module must match the motherboard. ### Card 118 **Question** How does ECC RAM differ from non-ECC RAM? **Answer** ECC can detect and correct certain memory errors; non-ECC lacks that protection. The CPU and motherboard must support ECC. ### Card 119 **Question** What does a dual- or multi-channel memory configuration require? **Answer** Compatible modules installed in the motherboard's paired channel slots. The board manual identifies the correct population order. ### Card 120 **Question** What happens when compatible RAM modules have different rated speeds? **Answer** They normally operate at a mutually supported speed, often the slower module's rate. Platform and firmware limits can reduce it further. ### Card 121 **Question** What limits a system's usable RAM capacity? **Answer** The CPU memory controller, motherboard, firmware, operating system, and supported module layout. Check the platform documentation before buying modules. ### Card 122 **Question** How do RAID 0 and RAID 1 trade capacity for protection? **Answer** RAID 0 stripes data for capacity and performance but has no redundancy; RAID 1 mirrors data and can survive one member failure. ### Card 123 **Question** How do 2.5-inch and 3.5-inch HDDs, spindle speed, and workload affect a drive choice? **Answer** The bay and interface must fit the form factor; faster spindle speed can improve access but adds heat, noise, and power use. Workload and capacity still matter. ### Card 124 **Question** How do SATA SSDs and NVMe SSDs communicate? **Answer** A SATA SSD uses the SATA storage interface; an NVMe SSD uses PCIe for lower-latency flash access. The slot and firmware must support the selected signaling. ### Card 125 **Question** Which removable media suit portable files, camera storage, and optical archives? **Answer** USB flash drives suit general transfers, memory cards suit compact devices such as cameras, and optical discs require a drive that supports the disc format. ### Card 126 **Question** How do RAID 5 and RAID 6 differ? **Answer** RAID 5 needs at least three drives and tolerates one member failure; RAID 6 needs at least four and uses dual parity to tolerate two. ### Card 127 **Question** What distinguishes SAS from SATA storage? **Answer** SAS is an enterprise-oriented serial SCSI interface with features such as dual-port support; SATA is common in client storage. The drive and controller interface must match. ### Card 128 **Question** How do M.2 and mSATA differ? **Answer** M.2 is a keyed form-factor family that may carry SATA or PCIe/NVMe; mSATA is an older compact form factor that carries SATA signaling. ### Card 129 **Question** When is an SSD preferable to an HDD? **Answer** Choose an SSD for low-latency, shock-resistant storage; choose an HDD when low-cost bulk capacity matters more. Neither removes the need for backup. ### Card 130 **Question** How do ATX, microATX, and Mini-ITX motherboard form factors affect a build? **Answer** They differ in board size, mounting layout, and typical expansion capacity. The case, power supply, and required slots must fit the board. ### Card 131 **Question** Match common motherboard connectors to their jobs. **Answer** PCI and PCIe host expansion cards; SATA and eSATA carry storage data; M.2 hosts compact devices; headers connect case features; power connectors feed the board and CPU. ### Card 132 **Question** What does RAID 10 provide? **Answer** Striping across mirrored pairs, normally using at least four drives. It combines performance with redundancy, but surviving multiple failures depends on which members fail. ### Card 133 **Question** What must match before installing an AMD or Intel CPU? **Answer** The CPU socket, chipset, firmware, and thermal design must support that exact processor. Multisocket boards also require a supported processor combination. ### Card 134 **Question** Which UEFI settings commonly control startup and hardware access? **Answer** Boot order, removable-media boot, USB permissions, fan behavior, temperature monitoring, and virtualization support. Change only the setting required for the task. ### Card 135 **Question** How do Secure Boot, a boot password, and a firmware setup password differ? **Answer** Secure Boot verifies trusted boot software; a boot password challenges startup; a setup password restricts firmware changes. ### Card 136 **Question** How do x86, x64, and ARM CPU architectures affect compatibility? **Answer** They use different instruction-set families; x86 is 32-bit, x64 extends that family to 64-bit, and ARM uses a RISC design. The OS and applications need compatible builds. ### Card 137 **Question** What does adding CPU cores improve? **Answer** Parallel work when software can use the cores. Architecture, clock speed, cooling, memory, and workload still shape performance. ### Card 138 **Question** Match sound, video, capture, and network expansion cards to their jobs. **Answer** Sound cards handle audio I/O, video cards render graphics, capture cards ingest external media signals, and NICs add network connectivity. ### Card 139 **Question** How do a TPM and HSM support encryption differently? **Answer** A TPM is a system security chip for protected keys and platform measurements; an HSM is a dedicated device or service for controlled cryptographic key operations. ### Card 140 **Question** How do fans and heat sinks work together? **Answer** A heat sink spreads component heat across fins; fans move air across those fins and through the case. ### Card 141 **Question** Why are thermal paste or pads placed between a chip and cooler? **Answer** They fill microscopic gaps so heat transfers efficiently. Use the specified material and amount. ### Card 142 **Question** What extra components does liquid CPU cooling add to diagnosis? **Answer** A pump, coolant path, radiator, fans, tubing, and seals. Verify mounting, flow, airflow, and leaks. ### Card 143 **Question** What hardware and firmware support may a hypervisor require? **Answer** A compatible CPU virtualization feature enabled in UEFI, plus enough memory, storage, networking, and security controls for its guests. ### Card 144 **Question** What must be checked when a PSU can receive 110–120 VAC or 220–240 VAC? **Answer** Its input range and selector behavior. Use the local mains range and never guess with a manual voltage switch. ### Card 145 **Question** What do the 3.3 V, 5 V, and 12 V PSU rails typically power? **Answer** They supply different component circuits: 3.3 V and 5 V serve logic and peripherals, while 12 V commonly feeds CPU/GPU regulators, motors, and fans. ### Card 146 **Question** What does a 20+4-pin ATX connector power? **Answer** The motherboard's main input. The CPU normally needs a separate 4- or 8-pin EPS-style connection. ### Card 147 **Question** How should PSU wattage be chosen? **Answer** Add the system's realistic peak demand and sensible headroom, then confirm connector, rail, and quality requirements. A large wattage label alone doesn't prove suitability. ### Card 148 **Question** What is the advantage and main caution of a modular PSU? **Answer** Detachable cables reduce clutter, but only cables approved for that exact PSU should be used. Modular pinouts aren't universally interchangeable. ### Card 149 **Question** What does a redundant power supply provide? **Answer** Two or more power modules so one can fail without immediately stopping the system. Redundancy still needs correct capacity and monitoring. ### Card 150 **Question** Why does PSU efficiency matter? **Answer** Higher efficiency wastes less input power as heat at a given load. Efficiency certification doesn't replace checks for electrical quality, capacity, or connectors. ### Card 151 **Question** How does a laser printer create and fix an image? **Answer** It forms an electrostatic image, applies toner, and bonds the toner with a heated fuser. Toner, drum, transfer, and fuser parts all affect output. ### Card 152 **Question** What should be checked when unboxing and placing a multifunction printer? **Answer** Remove shipping locks, allow service clearance and ventilation, match power and network access, load supported media, and choose a stable location. ### Card 153 **Question** How do PCL and PostScript printer drivers differ? **Answer** PCL is common for fast office output and can vary by device; PostScript describes pages in a device-independent way that suits complex graphics. Use the printer's supported driver. ### Card 154 **Question** What should be verified when choosing USB, Ethernet, or Wi-Fi for a printer? **Answer** Verify the intended users, cable or signal path, addressing, security, firmware, and driver support. USB serves a local host; network links serve reachable clients. ### Card 155 **Question** Which parts and maintenance tasks are typical for an inkjet printer? **Answer** Ink cartridges, printheads, pickup rollers, and feeders. Clean or align printheads, replace approved cartridges, clear jams, and service feed parts as needed. ### Card 156 **Question** How do printer sharing and a print server differ? **Answer** A printer share exposes a queue from a host; a print server centralizes queues, drivers, permissions, and management for many clients. ### Card 157 **Question** Which settings commonly change a print job's physical output? **Answer** Duplex, portrait or landscape orientation, paper tray and size, and quality. The application, driver, and device settings must agree. ### Card 158 **Question** Which controls protect a public or shared printer? **Answer** User authentication or badging, secure print release, appropriate permissions, and audit logs. They reduce abandoned sensitive output and trace approved use. ### Card 159 **Question** How does a direct thermal printer work and what maintenance does it need? **Answer** Heat darkens special thermal paper. Replace the paper correctly, clean the heating element and feed path, and remove debris. ### Card 160 **Question** Where can a network multifunction device send scans? **Answer** Common destinations are email, an SMB file share, or an approved cloud service. Configure credentials, permissions, addressing, and encryption for the destination. ### Card 161 **Question** When should you use an ADF instead of a flatbed scanner? **Answer** Use the automatic document feeder for stacks of loose pages; use the flatbed for fragile, bound, thick, or single originals. ### Card 162 **Question** What does printer calibration correct? **Answer** Placement, density, alignment, or color registration. Run the maker's procedure after relevant part or image-quality changes. ### Card 163 **Question** Why does an impact printer suit multipart forms? **Answer** Pins strike an inked ribbon and physically transfer the mark through layered paper. The mechanism is noisy but can mark multiple copies. ### Card 164 **Question** What does a laser-printer maintenance kit commonly refresh? **Answer** Wear parts such as rollers and the fuser, as defined for that model. Replace depleted toner, install the kit at its service interval, calibrate when output shifts, and clean only through approved paths. ### Card 165 **Question** How do inkjet feed and printhead maintenance address different faults? **Answer** Roller and feeder service fixes paper movement; printhead cleaning or alignment fixes missing or misplaced ink. Use the symptom to choose the maintenance. ### Card 166 **Question** What is a virtual machine? **Answer** A software-defined computer with virtual CPU, memory, storage, and devices that runs a guest operating system on a host. ### Card 167 **Question** Where does a Type 1 hypervisor run? **Answer** Directly on the host hardware. This bare-metal design is common in servers and virtualization platforms. ### Card 168 **Question** Why use a VM as a sandbox or test environment? **Answer** It isolates a disposable environment from the main workload and makes repeatable testing easier. Isolation reduces risk but doesn't make untrusted code harmless. ### Card 169 **Question** Which VM resources must be sized against real host capacity? **Answer** vCPU, memory, storage space, and I/O. Overcommitting them can make several guests compete for the same hardware. ### Card 170 **Question** What does application virtualization do? **Answer** It packages, streams, or isolates an application from the base installation. It can simplify delivery or preserve some legacy applications without virtualizing a whole desktop. ### Card 171 **Question** Where does a Type 2 hypervisor run? **Answer** As an application on a host operating system. It is convenient for desktop labs, testing, and occasional guests. ### Card 172 **Question** Which security layers need attention on a virtualization host? **Answer** The host, hypervisor, management access, guest OSs, virtual networks, and images. Patch and isolate each layer according to its role. ### Card 173 **Question** What must be planned for VM networking? **Answer** Addressing, virtual switch or NAT mode, segmentation, bandwidth, and access controls. A guest still needs a deliberate path to required services. ### Card 174 **Question** What does VDI deliver? **Answer** Centrally hosted desktop sessions to remote clients. Compute and management stay in the data center or cloud rather than on each endpoint. ### Card 175 **Question** What must be planned for VM storage? **Answer** Capacity, performance, snapshots, backup, and failure location. A snapshot on the same datastore isn't a complete backup. ### Card 176 **Question** How does a container differ from a typical VM? **Answer** A container isolates an application while sharing the host kernel; a VM normally includes a full guest operating system. ### Card 177 **Question** How can virtualization support legacy or cross-platform workloads? **Answer** A compatible guest OS or virtualized application layer can preserve the required environment. CPU architecture, licenses, drivers, and hardware access still constrain compatibility. ### Card 178 **Question** What does a container image provide? **Answer** A repeatable application filesystem and configuration used to start containers. Running containers add temporary writable state unless storage is attached. ### Card 179 **Question** A virtualization option is unavailable. What should you verify? **Answer** Verify CPU and platform support, then enable the required virtualization feature in UEFI if policy allows. Also confirm that another hypervisor hasn't claimed it. ### Card 180 **Question** What defines a public cloud? **Answer** It is offered for open use by the general public and operated by a cloud provider. Its resources may be shared or dedicated, depending on the service. ### Card 181 **Question** What does IaaS provide? **Answer** Cloud compute, networking, and storage infrastructure. The customer usually manages the operating system, applications, identities, and data. ### Card 182 **Question** What is cloud elasticity? **Answer** The ability to add or remove resources as demand changes, automatically or on request. ### Card 183 **Question** What does metered cloud utilization measure? **Answer** Consumed resources such as compute time, storage, requests, or transferred data for reporting, limits, and billing. ### Card 184 **Question** What defines a private cloud? **Answer** Cloud infrastructure reserved for one organization. It can run on-site or be hosted and operated by a provider. ### Card 185 **Question** What does SaaS provide? **Answer** A complete provider-run application accessed as a service. The customer mainly manages users, settings, and data. ### Card 186 **Question** How do shared and dedicated cloud resources differ? **Answer** Shared resources serve multiple customers with logical isolation; dedicated resources are reserved for one customer. Either can appear in a provider's public-cloud offering. ### Card 187 **Question** What is high availability designed to reduce? **Answer** Service downtime from component or location failure through redundancy and failover. ### Card 188 **Question** What is a hybrid cloud? **Answer** A coordinated use of private-cloud and public-cloud environments, with workloads or data placed where their requirements fit. ### Card 189 **Question** What does PaaS provide? **Answer** A managed application platform and runtime. Developers deploy code while the provider manages more of the operating system and infrastructure. ### Card 190 **Question** What do cloud ingress and egress mean? **Answer** Ingress is data entering the cloud service; egress is data leaving it. Providers often meter them differently, and egress can create a notable cost. ### Card 191 **Question** What does cloud multitenancy mean? **Answer** Multiple customers use provider infrastructure while their workloads and data remain logically isolated. ### Card 192 **Question** What is a community cloud? **Answer** Cloud infrastructure reserved for organizations with shared requirements, such as a sector or policy need, rather than for unrestricted public use. ### Card 193 **Question** What does FaaS run? **Answer** Event-triggered functions without the customer managing servers directly. The provider manages the execution environment and scaling mechanics. ### Card 194 **Question** Does using a cloud service remove the customer's security duties? **Answer** No. Responsibility is shared: the provider protects its service layers, while the customer still manages assigned areas such as identities, settings, applications, and data. ### Card 195 **Question** What can happen when two offline devices edit the same cloud-synchronized file? **Answer** A synchronization conflict. Preserve both versions, let sync finish, compare the changes, and keep the intended content. ### Card 196 **Question** A PC stops at POST with a beep or status-light pattern. What should you do next? **Answer** Look up the exact pattern in the system or motherboard service documentation, then test the indicated component. ### Card 197 **Question** A desktop shows no lights or fan movement. Where should power diagnosis start? **Answer** At the outlet, power strip, cord, PSU input switch, and main internal power connections. Move from the source inward. ### Card 198 **Question** A PC shows a proprietary crash screen. What evidence should you collect first? **Answer** Record the stop code and recent hardware changes, then check memory, storage, drivers, temperature, and logs indicated by that code. ### Card 199 **Question** A PC powers on but the screen stays blank. What hardware checks come first? **Answer** Check display power and input, video cabling, GPU seating or power, and whether POST completes. Test one known-good display path at a time. ### Card 200 **Question** A computer is sluggish under ordinary work. Which hardware conditions should you check? **Answer** Check temperature and throttling, RAM pressure, storage health and free space, CPU load, and background I/O before replacing parts. ### Card 201 **Question** A PC becomes unstable as CPU temperature rises. What should you inspect? **Answer** Inspect fan operation, heat-sink mounting, thermal material, dust, filters, and case airflow. The CPU may throttle or shut down to protect itself. ### Card 202 **Question** You smell burning from a powered computer. What is the immediate action? **Answer** Shut it down and disconnect power. Don't keep testing until the damaged power or board component has been safely identified. ### Card 203 **Question** A PC shuts down randomly only during heavy GPU work. What should you test? **Answer** Test PSU capacity and condition, GPU power leads, temperature, and event logs. Peak load can expose weak power or cooling. ### Card 204 **Question** Applications crash randomly after new RAM is installed. What should you do? **Answer** Verify compatibility and slot placement, reseat the modules, and run a memory diagnostic. Test modules separately if needed. ### Card 205 **Question** A computer develops an unusual fan or grinding noise. What should you inspect? **Answer** Inspect fans, cables, pumps, drives, dust, and mounting points while the system is safely powered down when contact is possible. ### Card 206 **Question** What should you do after finding a swollen motherboard capacitor? **Answer** Disconnect power and replace the failed board or arrange qualified component service. Don't keep operating a board with a visibly failing capacitor. ### Card 207 **Question** A PC loses its date and time whenever it is unplugged. What is the likely cause? **Answer** A weak motherboard coin-cell battery. Replace it with the specified type and restore any lost firmware settings. ### Card 208 **Question** Firmware reports less RAM than is installed. What is the first corrective step? **Answer** Power down, follow ESD precautions, and reseat the modules in the recommended slots. Then test compatibility, sticks, and slots methodically. ### Card 209 **Question** A newly installed CPU isn't recognized even though it fits the socket. What should you verify? **Answer** Verify chipset and firmware support, CPU power, contact condition, seating, and cooling. Physical fit alone doesn't prove compatibility. ### Card 210 **Question** How can you isolate a motherboard, CPU, RAM, or PSU no-POST fault? **Answer** Reduce the system to minimum required hardware, confirm known-good power, and add components back one at a time. ### Card 211 **Question** A storage controller shows a warning LED or audible alarm. What should you do first? **Answer** Read the controller's exact status, preserve a current backup, and identify the affected drive or array before replacing anything. ### Card 212 **Question** A hard drive clicks or grinds while reads fail. What should you prioritize? **Answer** Stop unnecessary activity, preserve recoverable data, and replace the drive. Repeated testing can worsen a mechanical failure. ### Card 213 **Question** A PC reports no bootable device. Which checks come first? **Answer** Check firmware drive detection and boot order, then data and power connections. If the drive is detected, check its health before changing partitions. ### Card 214 **Question** Files are corrupt or missing after storage errors. What should you do? **Answer** Stop writes, preserve the affected media, restore from a verified backup when appropriate, and diagnose the drive, controller, memory, and filesystem cause. ### Card 215 **Question** A controller reports an array missing. What should you avoid? **Answer** Don't initialize or recreate it blindly. Check controller configuration, cabling, power, member detection, and the documented recovery path first. ### Card 216 **Question** A drive has unusually long read and write times. What should you inspect? **Answer** Inspect health data, errors, cable or link negotiation, free space, workload, temperature, and the storage interface. ### Card 217 **Question** What should you do after a S.M.A.R.T. failure warning? **Answer** Back up important data immediately and plan drive replacement. A health warning isn't something to clear and ignore. ### Card 218 **Question** Firmware sees a drive, but the operating system doesn't. What should you check? **Answer** Check OS storage management, drivers, bus support, partitions, and whether the disk is offline. Don't initialize a disk that may contain needed data. ### Card 219 **Question** A RAID array is degraded after a member fails. What is the safe response? **Answer** Confirm the failed member, verify backup, replace it through the controller's procedure, and monitor the rebuild. Don't remove a healthy member by guesswork. ### Card 220 **Question** What can cause low storage IOPS even when capacity is available? **Answer** A saturated or slow device, high queue depth, contention, thermal throttling, controller limits, or an unsuitable RAID layout. ### Card 221 **Question** A monitor reports no signal. What should you check first? **Answer** Check power, selected input, cable seating, adapter compatibility, and whether the computer is producing video. ### Card 222 **Question** A projector is dim or shuts down intermittently. What should you inspect? **Answer** Inspect the bulb or light source, filters, vents, temperature, brightness settings, room light, and service-life indicators. ### Card 223 **Question** Text looks fuzzy or the desktop doesn't fit the screen. Which settings should you verify? **Answer** Verify native resolution, scaling, aspect ratio, and any overscan setting. Then check cable and adapter quality. ### Card 224 **Question** How do display burn-in and a dead pixel differ? **Answer** Burn-in is persistent image retention across an area; a dead or stuck pixel is a fixed point defect. Confirm each with varied full-screen test images. ### Card 225 **Question** A display flashes or flickers at a new refresh rate. What should you check? **Answer** Check that the display, GPU, port, cable, resolution, and refresh rate combination is supported. ### Card 226 **Question** A projected image is trapezoidal or distorted. What should you adjust? **Answer** Correct projector position, angle, focus, and aspect ratio first; use keystone correction only as needed. ### Card 227 **Question** A monitor shows incorrect colors. How do you isolate the cause? **Answer** Check color settings and profiles, reseat or replace the cable, test another input or display, and inspect GPU output and drivers. ### Card 228 **Question** Video works over HDMI or DisplayPort, but audio doesn't. What should you check? **Answer** Check the OS playback device, application output, display volume, cable capability, and whether the adapter carries audio. ### Card 229 **Question** A laptop LCD shows a faint image only under a flashlight. Which area is likely failing? **Answer** The backlight or its power/driver path. The faint picture shows that image data still reaches the panel. ### Card 230 **Question** A phone battery drains much faster than usual. What should you check first? **Answer** Check battery health and recent screen, app, radio, and location use. Confirm the usage change before replacing hardware. ### Card 231 **Question** A phone has a broken screen but still receives notifications. What should guide the repair? **Answer** Back up accessible data, stop using sharp or exposed surfaces, and determine whether the glass, display, digitizer, or full assembly is replaceable. ### Card 232 **Question** A phone won't charge and its port looks damaged. What is the safe first test? **Answer** Inspect without metal tools, then try a known-good compatible cable and charger. Use wireless charging only if the device supports it and the battery is safe. ### Card 233 **Question** A phone has poor or no connectivity. What should you isolate? **Answer** Test Wi-Fi, cellular, and Bluetooth separately; check airplane mode, signal, account or SIM/eSIM state, and the specific network settings. ### Card 234 **Question** A battery is pushing a mobile-device case apart. What should you do? **Answer** Power it down, stop charging it, and arrange approved battery service. Don't press the case closed. ### Card 235 **Question** A mobile device gets wet. Why should you avoid powering or charging it? **Answer** Moisture can cause shorts and corrosion. Shut it down and follow the manufacturer's drying or service guidance. ### Card 236 **Question** Touch input drifts or misses one area. What should you check? **Answer** Check screen cleanliness and protectors, test calibration if supported, compare apps, and inspect the digitizer connection or damage. ### Card 237 **Question** A phone slows down and overheats during light use. What should you inspect? **Answer** Inspect battery health, storage pressure, updates, background apps, signal hunting, and possible malware. Stop use if heat is unsafe. ### Card 238 **Question** A mobile device shows pop-ups and heavy data use after an untrusted install. What should you suspect? **Answer** Malware or a harmful app. Disconnect as needed, preserve required evidence, remove it through the approved mobile-security process, and update the device. ### Card 239 **Question** A mobile device can't install a new application. What should you check? **Answer** Check free storage, OS and hardware compatibility, account or store access, network service, and MDM policy before bypassing any restriction. ### Card 240 **Question** An active stylus doesn't work, but finger touch does. What should you check? **Answer** Check stylus compatibility, charge or battery, pairing, tip, app support, and the device's active-digitizer settings. ### Card 241 **Question** Users report slow network speeds. What should you measure before changing hardware? **Answer** Measure negotiated link rate, throughput, utilization, errors, signal, channel use, and server or ISP performance to locate the bottleneck. ### Card 242 **Question** Wi-Fi disconnects intermittently in one area. What should you inspect? **Answer** Inspect signal strength, roaming, interference, channel plan, access-point placement, client drivers, and power-saving behavior. ### Card 243 **Question** A client reports limited connectivity. Which layers should you check in order? **Answer** Check physical or wireless link, IP address and mask, gateway, DHCP, DNS, and upstream reachability. ### Card 244 **Question** A user repeatedly fails network authentication. What should you verify? **Answer** Verify the account and credentials, time, certificate, authentication method, network policy, and whether the user or device is authorized. ### Card 245 **Question** Which tools help locate high latency? **Answer** Ping compares delay and loss; traceroute shows the path by hops. Test several destinations to separate a local, provider, and destination issue. ### Card 246 **Question** What signs point to external wireless interference? **Answer** Signal quality or throughput drops despite adequate strength, often near a device or at certain times. A spectrum or Wi-Fi analyzer helps confirm it. ### Card 247 **Question** A switch port repeatedly changes between up and down. What should you isolate? **Answer** Isolate the patch cable, wall run, endpoint NIC, and switch port. Review port logs and test the cable for a port-flapping cause. ### Card 248 **Question** A wired PC has no link light. Where should troubleshooting start? **Answer** At the cable, connector, NIC, and switch port. Changing IP settings can't repair a missing physical link. ### Card 249 **Question** VoIP sounds choppy even though average bandwidth is adequate. Which network condition should you measure? **Answer** Jitter, along with latency and packet loss. QoS and congestion control may help after the impaired path is identified. ### Card 250 **Question** Internet access drops for every local client, then returns. Where should you look? **Answer** Check the shared WAN path: the router's WAN link, modem or ONT, provider service, power, and logs. Independent failures across every local client at once are unlikely. ### Card 251 **Question** A host can reach an internet IP but not a website name. What is the likely fault? **Answer** DNS resolution. Check the configured resolver and test a direct lookup. ### Card 252 **Question** A PC receives a 169.254.x.x address. What should you test next? **Answer** Test its link and the path to DHCP. The APIPA address shows that normal lease configuration failed. ### Card 253 **Question** Two hosts report an address conflict. What should you inspect? **Answer** Inspect static assignments, DHCP reservations, and the lease scope for a duplicate IP address. ### Card 254 **Question** A PC on a new switch port can't reach its department resources. What should you verify? **Answer** Verify the access VLAN, then its routing and policy. A good physical link on the wrong VLAN still provides the wrong network access. ### Card 255 **Question** A PoE camera has network pairs but no power. What should you check? **Answer** Check the injector or switch standard, port state, total power budget, cable quality, and camera power requirement. ### Card 256 **Question** Only one PC lacks network access while nearby systems work. What should you compare? **Answer** Compare its link, IP settings, DNS, authentication, proxy or VPN state, and local firewall with a working peer. ### Card 257 **Question** A printed page has a line in the same place every time. What should you inspect? **Answer** Inspect the cartridge, printhead, drum, scanner glass, and approved cleaning path for contamination or damage, based on printer type. ### Card 258 **Question** A printer produces garbled characters. What should you verify? **Answer** Verify the driver and print language, cable or network path, firmware, and source document. Cancel the bad job before retrying. ### Card 259 **Question** A printer reports a paper jam. What is the safe response? **Answer** Stop the job, follow the documented paper path, remove paper in the specified direction, and check for scraps or damaged rollers. ### Card 260 **Question** Several print jobs remain pending after the printer recovers. What should you do? **Answer** Cancel failed jobs as appropriate, verify printer status and connectivity, restart the print service if needed, then send one small test page. ### Card 261 **Question** Printed pages are uniformly faded. What should you check? **Answer** Check toner or ink level, density or quality settings, cartridge condition, and the correct media setting. ### Card 262 **Question** A printer makes a grinding noise. What should you do? **Answer** Stop the job and inspect for jammed media, foreign objects, damaged gears, or a misseated cartridge or maintenance part. ### Card 263 **Question** Paper won't feed or several sheets feed together. Which parts should you inspect? **Answer** Inspect pickup rollers, the separation pad, feeder, paper condition, tray guides, and load limit. ### Card 264 **Question** A document prints in the wrong orientation. What should you check? **Answer** Check portrait or landscape settings in the application and driver, then confirm paper size and any device default. ### Card 265 **Question** What commonly causes speckles across printed pages? **Answer** Loose toner, ink contamination, a dirty print path, or a damaged cartridge or drum. Use the printer type and repeating pattern to narrow it. ### Card 266 **Question** A finisher won't staple or punch pages. What should you inspect? **Answer** Inspect the staple cartridge or jam, punch waste bin, finisher seating, supported paper, and driver job settings. ### Card 267 **Question** A printer doesn't recognize a loaded tray. What should you check? **Answer** Check tray seating, paper guides and size sensors, media settings, firmware, and driver configuration. ### Card 268 **Question** A network printer shows Ready but clients can't reach it. What should you test? **Answer** Test its link, IP configuration, address conflict, VLAN and routing path, print port, and firewall access. ### Card 269 **Question** A laser page shows a repeated faint image. Which area should you inspect? **Answer** Inspect the imaging drum and fuser for ghosting. The repeat distance can help the service guide identify the rotating part. ### Card 270 **Question** A print queue is frozen and won't process a test page. What should you do? **Answer** Clear the blocked job safely, restart the spooler or print service, verify disk and printer connectivity, then submit one small test. ### Card 271 **Question** Which desktop OS is the usual choice for broad business software and Active Directory integration? **Answer** Windows. It has the widest support for common business applications and native integration with Microsoft domain services. ### Card 272 **Question** When is a clean OS installation preferable to an in-place upgrade? **Answer** Choose a clean install when you need a fresh system or the existing installation is unreliable. It removes installed apps and settings, so back up user data first. ### Card 273 **Question** Which Windows command lists files and folders in the current directory? **Answer** `dir`. Use `cd` when you need to change the current directory. ### Card 274 **Question** Which Windows tool gives a quick view of running processes, startup apps, users, services, and performance? **Answer** Task Manager. It is the first stop for a quick process or resource check. ### Card 275 **Question** What should you check before moving a user between desktop or mobile operating systems? **Answer** Check application, peripheral, file-format, and account compatibility first. A supported OS is still a bad fit if the user's required tools or data won't work on it. ### Card 276 **Question** How should you choose between a public and private Windows network profile? **Answer** Use Public on untrusted networks and Private only on trusted local networks. The profile changes discovery and firewall behavior. ### Card 277 **Question** Which Windows command shows the current IP configuration? **Answer** `ipconfig`. Add `/all` when you need details such as DHCP, DNS, gateway, and adapter addresses. ### Card 278 **Question** What is the main benefit of deploying an OS image? **Answer** It applies a prepared, consistent system build to multiple devices. The image still needs compatible drivers, licensing, and post-deployment updates. ### Card 279 **Question** Which console should you open to investigate recorded application, security, or system errors? **Answer** Event Viewer. Filter by the relevant time, source, and event level instead of treating every warning as the cause. ### Card 280 **Question** Which Windows file system supports permissions, encryption, compression, and large local volumes? **Answer** NTFS. It is the standard Windows file system when you need access controls and other full desktop features. ### Card 281 **Question** Which Windows edition fits a basic home PC that does not need business management features? **Answer** Windows Home. It covers normal consumer use but lacks several business features found in Pro and Enterprise. ### Card 282 **Question** What do the common macOS application forms `.dmg`, `.pkg`, and `.app` represent? **Answer** A `.dmg` is a mountable disk image, a `.pkg` runs an installer, and an `.app` is an application bundle. Remove software with its supported process, especially when it installed system components. ### Card 283 **Question** Which boot approach lets a technician start an installer delivered by a deployment server? **Answer** Network boot, commonly PXE. The client firmware and network must support it, and the deployment service must be reachable. ### Card 284 **Question** Which command is the quickest basic test of IP reachability to another host? **Answer** `ping`. A failed ping is only a clue because the host or firewall may block echo traffic. ### Card 285 **Question** Which Windows tool creates partitions, assigns drive letters, and initializes disks? **Answer** Disk Management. Confirm the disk and volume before making changes because some operations can destroy data. ### Card 286 **Question** What is safer than disabling Windows Firewall when one application is blocked? **Answer** Create the narrowest required application or port exception. Keep the firewall enabled and limit the rule to the needed profiles and traffic. ### Card 287 **Question** What should you compare before installing a demanding application? **Answer** Compare its OS, CPU, RAM, storage, graphics, VRAM, and peripheral requirements with the device. Check both minimum and practical workload needs. ### Card 288 **Question** Which Windows edition is the usual minimum for joining a business domain and hosting Remote Desktop? **Answer** Windows Pro. It also adds business features such as BitLocker management and Local Group Policy. ### Card 289 **Question** Which Windows command queries DNS records for a name? **Answer** `nslookup`. It helps distinguish name-resolution trouble from basic network reachability. ### Card 290 **Question** Which macOS feature creates versioned backups for normal file and system recovery? **Answer** Time Machine. Confirm the backup destination is available and test that needed files can actually be restored. ### Card 291 **Question** What makes zero-touch deployment different from a normal remote installation? **Answer** Zero-touch deployment minimizes hands-on setup after the device starts. Policies, applications, and identity configuration are applied automatically. ### Card 292 **Question** When is exFAT usually a better removable-drive format than FAT32? **Answer** Use exFAT when the drive must move between modern operating systems and hold files larger than FAT32's 4 GB per-file limit. ### Card 293 **Question** Which values must be correct in a manual IPv4 client configuration? **Answer** The IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server settings must fit the network. A wrong value can break local or internet access. ### Card 294 **Question** How do FileVault and Keychain serve different security jobs on macOS? **Answer** FileVault encrypts the startup disk; Keychain stores passwords, certificates, and keys. Neither replaces good account security or backups. ### Card 295 **Question** What should you verify before booting an installer from USB media? **Answer** Verify the media is trusted and bootable, then select the correct temporary boot device. Also confirm the firmware mode matches the planned partition style. ### Card 296 **Question** Which Windows console is best for checking a device's driver status or hardware error code? **Answer** Device Manager. It shows detected hardware, driver details, disabled devices, and device error codes. ### Card 297 **Question** When is Windows Enterprise a better fit than Pro? **Answer** Use Enterprise for centrally managed organizations that need its additional security, deployment, and control features. It is licensed for organizational use rather than a typical retail PC. ### Card 298 **Question** How does a domain differ from a workgroup for Windows client management? **Answer** A domain provides centralized identity and policy; a workgroup manages accounts separately on each PC. Shared resources must match the chosen model. ### Card 299 **Question** Which command shows active network connections and listening ports on Windows? **Answer** `netstat`. Use its documented options to include process IDs or numeric addresses when needed. ### Card 300 **Question** Which Windows tool runs a program or script on a trigger or schedule? **Answer** Task Scheduler. Use it for defined triggers such as a time, startup, sign-in, or event. ### Card 301 **Question** What must be assigned before a user can legally use many cloud productivity apps? **Answer** The correct service license. Installation alone does not grant an account access to licensed features. ### Card 302 **Question** What do `/Applications`, `/Users`, `/Library`, and `/System` hold on macOS? **Answer** They hold installed apps, user home folders, shared support data, and protected system components, respectively. A user's own Library sits inside that user's home folder. ### Card 303 **Question** What path format directly identifies a Windows network share? **Answer** A UNC path such as `\\server\share`. A mapped drive gives that share a drive letter for convenience. ### Card 304 **Question** Why can a 32-bit-only dependency block an otherwise capable 64-bit system? **Answer** The application may rely on an unsupported 32-bit component or driver. Confirm the complete dependency chain, not just the CPU architecture. ### Card 305 **Question** Which file systems are common on Linux desktops and servers? **Answer** ext4 and XFS. Both are Linux-native choices; support for features and repair tools depends on the distribution and workload. ### Card 306 **Question** What workload is Windows Pro for Workstations aimed at? **Answer** High-end professional hardware and demanding workloads. It adds support intended for workstation-class processors, memory, and storage features. ### Card 307 **Question** Why synchronize identity between an organization and a cloud productivity service? **Answer** It keeps user accounts and access aligned with the organization's identity source. Provisioning and removal can then follow the user's lifecycle. ### Card 308 **Question** When should you try a repair installation or recovery environment? **Answer** Use it when the current OS is damaged but preserving the installation is still reasonable. Back up recoverable data before making larger changes. ### Card 309 **Question** Which Windows command traces the router hops toward a destination? **Answer** `tracert`. Use `pathping` when you also need sampled latency and loss information across the route. ### Card 310 **Question** Why should mobile apps come from the platform's trusted store or an approved enterprise source? **Answer** Trusted sources provide stronger publisher, signing, and review checks. Sideloading from an unknown source raises the risk of a malicious or altered app. ### Card 311 **Question** What is distinctive about a Windows N edition? **Answer** It omits certain built-in media technologies. An application that depends on those components may need Microsoft's media feature package. ### Card 312 **Question** Which partition style is the normal choice for a modern UEFI system? **Answer** GPT. It supports modern UEFI booting, large disks, and more partitions than legacy MBR. ### Card 313 **Question** What should you confirm when setting up a cloud storage sync folder? **Answer** Confirm the account, selected folders, local disk impact, sharing rules, and whether files remain available offline. ### Card 314 **Question** When does a dedicated GPU matter more than integrated graphics? **Answer** It matters when the application requires more graphics performance or dedicated VRAM than the integrated GPU can provide. ### Card 315 **Question** How do `chmod` and `chown` differ on Linux? **Answer** `chmod` changes permission bits; `chown` changes file ownership. Verify the target and use elevated rights only when required. ### Card 316 **Question** Which command checks a Windows volume's file-system structure for errors? **Answer** `chkdsk`. Review its options before requesting repairs because a repair may need exclusive access or a restart. ### Card 317 **Question** What is the difference between partitioning and formatting a drive? **Answer** Partitioning defines logical regions on the drive; formatting creates a file system inside a partition. Both can affect existing data, so confirm the target first. ### Card 318 **Question** What does a client VPN connection provide? **Answer** It creates an encrypted path to a remote private network. The user still needs valid authentication and authorization for its resources. ### Card 319 **Question** Which Linux package managers are common on Debian-based and Fedora-based systems? **Answer** `apt` is common on Debian and Ubuntu; `dnf` is common on Fedora and related systems. Use authorized `sudo` elevation for administrative package changes instead of routine root login. ### Card 320 **Question** When should you use Performance Monitor instead of only Task Manager? **Answer** Use Performance Monitor when you need counters collected over time. Task Manager is better for a quick live snapshot. ### Card 321 **Question** Which Windows command-line tool manages disks, partitions, and volumes? **Answer** `diskpart`. Select and verify the exact disk before any destructive command. ### Card 322 **Question** Which firmware and security components are central to Windows 11 hardware eligibility? **Answer** UEFI with Secure Boot capability and a supported TPM 2.0 are central requirements. The processor, RAM, and storage must also meet Microsoft's current requirements. ### Card 323 **Question** What should you verify before a mobile OS upgrade? **Answer** Check device support, free storage, battery or power, network access, app compatibility, and a current backup. ### Card 324 **Question** Why mark a Windows connection as metered? **Answer** It tells Windows to limit some background transfers on a connection with a data cap or high cost. Updates and cloud sync may behave differently. ### Card 325 **Question** Which file system is designed for current Apple storage devices? **Answer** APFS. It is Apple's modern file system for macOS and other Apple platforms. ### Card 326 **Question** Which Linux commands distinguish free filesystem space from a directory's space use? **Answer** `df` reports filesystem free space; `du` estimates space used by files and directories. Use both when tracking down a full disk. ### Card 327 **Question** What belongs in an OS upgrade preflight check? **Answer** Back up user data and settings, then verify hardware, applications, drivers, storage, licensing, and the supported upgrade path. ### Card 328 **Question** Why should Windows show known file extensions during support work? **Answer** Visible extensions make file types easier to verify and help expose misleading names such as `invoice.pdf.exe`. ### Card 329 **Question** What is the safest source for an application installer? **Answer** Use the vendor's trusted store or official download channel. Verify the publisher, signature, or published hash when available. ### Card 330 **Question** Which Windows command is built for reliable folder copying with restart and mirror options? **Answer** `robocopy`. Treat mirror or purge options carefully because they can delete destination files that are absent from the source. ### Card 331 **Question** Why should you verify the supported Windows edition upgrade path before starting? **Answer** Not every source edition can upgrade directly to every target edition. An unsupported path may require a clean install instead. ### Card 332 **Question** Which Windows tool helps isolate startup problems by controlling boot and service options? **Answer** System Configuration (`msconfig`). Use selective startup for diagnosis, then restore the intended configuration after testing. ### Card 333 **Question** What should a technician test before rolling out cloud videoconferencing? **Answer** Test supported devices, camera and microphone permissions, network capacity, sign-in, and any organization policy. ### Card 334 **Question** What does an operating system reaching end of life mean for support? **Answer** The vendor no longer provides normal support or security updates. Plan a supported upgrade or replacement instead of treating the old system as safe indefinitely. ### Card 335 **Question** Which Windows command checks protected system files and replaces damaged copies? **Answer** `sfc /scannow`. Run it from an elevated terminal and review the result before deciding the next repair step. ### Card 336 **Question** What is the purpose of a Microsoft Management Console snap-in? **Answer** It adds a focused administrative tool to an MMC console. Event Viewer, Local Users and Groups, and Certificate Manager are common examples. ### Card 337 **Question** What is the purpose of a mobile configuration profile? **Answer** It applies managed settings such as accounts, certificates, restrictions, and security rules. Install profiles only from an authorized administrator or trusted provider. ### Card 338 **Question** What is ReFS mainly designed to improve on supported Windows systems? **Answer** Storage resilience and data integrity. ReFS is useful for supported data workloads, but it is not a universal replacement for an NTFS Windows boot volume. ### Card 339 **Question** Why pilot a business application before a broad rollout? **Answer** A pilot exposes device, network, workflow, licensing, and compatibility effects on a small group before they reach everyone. ### Card 340 **Question** Why check sharing permissions before moving a document into a collaboration workspace? **Answer** The move may change who can read or edit it. Confirm the intended audience, link settings, ownership, and version history. ### Card 341 **Question** Which physical control stops a vehicle from driving close to a protected entrance? **Answer** Bollards. They create a physical barrier while still allowing pedestrian access. ### Card 342 **Question** What is the main sign that a message may be phishing? **Answer** It tries to push you into revealing data, opening a file, or following a link under false pretenses. Verify the request through a known channel. ### Card 343 **Question** What protects workstation data if a powered-off drive is stolen? **Answer** Data-at-rest encryption, such as BitLocker or FileVault. Store recovery keys through an approved process. ### Card 344 **Question** What is the first step in a suspected malware case? **Answer** Investigate and verify the symptoms. Record what happened and rule out ordinary faults before declaring the system infected. ### Card 345 **Question** What is the purpose of an access control vestibule? **Answer** It allows one controlled door to close before the next opens. This reduces tailgating into a secure area. ### Card 346 **Question** How do spear phishing and whaling differ from broad phishing? **Answer** Spear phishing targets a specific person or group; whaling targets senior or high-value people. Both use tailored context to appear credible. ### Card 347 **Question** Which password properties matter most for normal user accounts? **Answer** Use long, unique passwords and store them in an approved password manager. Complexity and expiration rules should follow current organization policy. ### Card 348 **Question** Why is a normal format not enough before transferring a drive with sensitive data? **Answer** A standard format mainly rebuilds file-system structures and may leave recoverable data. Use an approved wipe, secure erase, encryption-key destruction, or physical destruction method. ### Card 349 **Question** What makes a Trojan different from a computer virus? **Answer** A Trojan pretends to be legitimate so the user installs or runs it. A virus attaches its code to a host file or boot area and replicates when that code runs. ### Card 350 **Question** Why combine a badge reader with a biometric check at a sensitive door? **Answer** The combination verifies something the person has and something they are. It is stronger than either factor alone. ### Card 351 **Question** What does a BIOS or UEFI password protect? **Answer** It limits unauthorized firmware changes or startup access. It does not encrypt files on the drive. ### Card 352 **Question** Which phishing names apply to voice calls, text messages, and malicious QR codes? **Answer** Vishing uses voice, smishing uses SMS or messaging, and QR phishing uses a code to hide the destination. Verify the request before acting. ### Card 353 **Question** What should you do once a malware infection is reasonably confirmed? **Answer** Quarantine the device from networks and shared storage. Preserve any evidence required by policy while limiting further spread. ### Card 354 **Question** Which malware hides deeply in a system to preserve privileged access? **Answer** A rootkit. Because it can conceal processes or changes, trusted offline scanning or reimaging may be required. ### Card 355 **Question** What simple action protects an unattended signed-in workstation? **Answer** Lock the screen. Use an automatic timeout as a backup, and log off when the session is no longer needed. ### Card 356 **Question** What do cameras, guards, alarms, lighting, and motion sensors contribute to physical security? **Answer** They deter, detect, record, or respond to unauthorized activity. They work best as layers rather than a single control. ### Card 357 **Question** What attack occurs when someone watches a user enter sensitive information? **Answer** Shoulder surfing. Privacy screens, careful positioning, and awareness reduce the risk. ### Card 358 **Question** How should you verify a browser download before running it? **Answer** Use a trusted source, confirm the publisher or signature, and compare a published hash when available. A matching hash proves integrity, not that the publisher is trustworthy. ### Card 359 **Question** What does a computer virus need in order to spread? **Answer** A virus attaches to a host file or boot area and spreads when that infected code runs. A boot-sector virus targets startup data. ### Card 360 **Question** When is a secure erase preferable to physical destruction? **Answer** Use a verified secure erase when the storage device will be reused and the method fits its media type. Validate the result before reassignment. ### Card 361 **Question** How does tailgating differ from impersonation? **Answer** Tailgating follows an authorized person into a restricted area; impersonation claims a false identity to gain trust or access. ### Card 362 **Question** What does the principle of least privilege require? **Answer** Give an account only the access needed for its current job, for only as long as needed. Review and remove unnecessary rights. ### Card 363 **Question** What does spoofing change to make a message, host, or caller look trusted? **Answer** It forges identifying information such as an address, name, number, or source. Verify identity through a separate trusted signal. ### Card 364 **Question** Which Wi-Fi security protocol is the preferred modern choice when all devices support it? **Answer** WPA3. Use its strongest supported mode and a strong credential or enterprise authentication. ### Card 365 **Question** How does a DDoS attack differ from a DoS attack? **Answer** A DDoS attack uses many distributed sources; a DoS attack may come from one source. Both aim to exhaust availability. ### Card 366 **Question** What assumption drives a Zero Trust access decision? **Answer** No user, device, or network location is trusted automatically. Verify identity, device state, context, and authorization for each access decision. ### Card 367 **Question** Which physical methods make a hard drive unusable? **Answer** Approved shredding or drilling can destroy the platters and mechanism. Follow safety, environmental, and evidence-handling rules. ### Card 368 **Question** How do account lockout and account expiration solve different problems? **Answer** Lockout slows repeated failed sign-ins; expiration ends access after a defined date. Set both according to business policy. ### Card 369 **Question** Which malware categories secretly monitor a user's activity? **Answer** Spyware collects activity or data; a keylogger records input; stalkerware is used for covert surveillance of a person. ### Card 370 **Question** What wireless threat presents a convincing fake access point? **Answer** An evil twin. Users may connect to it because its network name resembles a trusted one. ### Card 371 **Question** What are the first security changes on a new SOHO router? **Answer** Change default administrator credentials, update firmware, and save a known-good configuration. Use a unique management password. ### Card 372 **Question** What should you do when a browser reports an invalid certificate on a sensitive site? **Answer** Stop and verify the address, system time, and certificate details. Do not bypass the warning for sign-in or payment data. ### Card 373 **Question** What does an access control list decide? **Answer** An ACL states which identities or traffic are allowed or denied on a resource. Keep entries specific and review inherited rules. ### Card 374 **Question** Which malware blocks access to data and demands payment? **Answer** Ransomware. Isolate the device quickly and recover from known-good backups rather than assuming payment will restore data. ### Card 375 **Question** How should router management access be exposed? **Answer** Allow it only from trusted interfaces and secure protocols, ideally from the local network. Place the router where unauthorized people cannot reset or replace it. ### Card 376 **Question** How should Windows restore points be handled during an approved malware-removal workflow? **Answer** Temporarily disable System Restore when the procedure calls for it, then re-enable it and create a clean restore point after remediation. ### Card 377 **Question** Which built-in accounts or credentials should be changed or disabled during setup? **Answer** Disable the guest account when unused and replace default administrator names or passwords where policy requires it. Never leave vendor defaults active. ### Card 378 **Question** What happens in an on-path attack? **Answer** The attacker positions themselves between communicating parties to observe or alter traffic. Strong certificate validation and encryption help prevent it. ### Card 379 **Question** How do browser patches and extension controls work together? **Answer** Patches fix browser flaws; extension controls reduce code from untrusted add-ons. Keep only approved, necessary extensions. ### Card 380 **Question** How should a guest wireless network be separated from trusted devices? **Answer** Use a separate guest network with strong encryption and client isolation. Do not grant it access to internal files or management interfaces. ### Card 381 **Question** Why disable AutoRun and unused services? **Answer** They remove automatic execution paths and unnecessary attack surface. Confirm a service is not required before disabling it. ### Card 382 **Question** Which storage media can degaussing sanitize? **Answer** Magnetic media such as compatible hard drives and tapes, but only with an approved degausser rated for that exact medium. Flash storage such as SSDs cannot be sanitized this way. A drive becoming unusable does not prove its data was sanitized; follow and validate the approved procedure. ### Card 383 **Question** Why update anti-malware tools before the main removal scan? **Answer** Current definitions and engines can recognize newer threats. Scan in a safer environment, such as Safe Mode or approved recovery media, when appropriate. ### Card 384 **Question** What makes authentication multifactor? **Answer** It uses factors from at least two different categories, such as a password plus a hardware token or biometric. Two passwords are still one factor type. ### Card 385 **Question** Which encryption choice is appropriate for a WPA2 network? **Answer** AES-based CCMP. Avoid selecting older TKIP just to keep obsolete clients connected. ### Card 386 **Question** What is the basic endpoint patching sequence? **Answer** Inventory supported systems, deploy tested OS and application updates, verify success, and remediate failures. Endpoint security definitions need updates too. ### Card 387 **Question** Why should daily work use a standard account instead of an administrator account? **Answer** A standard account limits what mistakes or malware can change. Elevate only the specific approved task through UAC or Run as administrator. ### Card 388 **Question** When is reimaging safer than continuing to clean an infected PC? **Answer** Reimage when trust cannot be restored, the malware is deeply embedded, or policy requires a known-good build. Restore only verified clean data. ### Card 389 **Question** Why is TKIP a poor choice for a new wireless network? **Answer** TKIP is a legacy protocol with known security limits. Replace incompatible clients and use WPA2-AES or WPA3. ### Card 390 **Question** When is incineration an acceptable data-destruction method? **Answer** Only through an authorized facility that can handle the material safely and meet legal and environmental requirements. ### Card 391 **Question** What does private browsing protect on a shared computer? **Answer** It reduces local history and cookie retention after the session. It does not hide activity from the network or service, so sign out and clear sensitive data as policy requires. ### Card 392 **Question** How does a dictionary attack differ from a general brute-force attack? **Answer** A dictionary attack tries likely words and known password patterns; brute force systematically tries possibilities. Long, unique passwords and rate limits make both harder. ### Card 393 **Question** How do SSO and SAML commonly work together? **Answer** SSO lets one sign-in reach multiple services; SAML can carry trusted authentication claims between an identity provider and a service. ### Card 394 **Question** Why disable UPnP and unused inbound ports when they are not required? **Answer** They can create unnecessary paths into the network. Open only the specific service and source access the business needs. ### Card 395 **Question** What symptom often points to an unauthorized cryptominer? **Answer** Unexplained sustained CPU or GPU use, heat, fan noise, or power consumption. Confirm the process before removal. ### Card 396 **Question** What should an outsourced destruction vendor provide? **Answer** A traceable certificate of destruction or recycling tied to the assets. Confirm the vendor and chain of custody before release. ### Card 397 **Question** When is just-in-time privileged access safer than a standing admin account? **Answer** It grants elevated rights only for an approved task and limited time. Privileged access management can control and record that elevation. ### Card 398 **Question** What follow-up checks belong after malware removal? **Answer** Run updated scans, patch the system, schedule ongoing scans and updates, and verify normal behavior before reconnecting fully. ### Card 399 **Question** Which input flaws commonly enable SQL injection and cross-site scripting? **Answer** SQL injection reaches a database through unsafe query input; XSS injects script into content a browser renders. Use parameterized queries for SQL and context-aware output encoding for browser content. ### Card 400 **Question** Which mobile controls help after a managed phone is lost? **Answer** A locator, remote lock or wipe, device encryption, and a current remote backup. Test enrollment before the device disappears. ### Card 401 **Question** Which control is designed to detect or block sensitive data from leaving approved boundaries? **Answer** Data loss prevention, or DLP. It applies rules to data in use, in motion, or at rest according to policy. ### Card 402 **Question** When is port forwarding appropriate on a small network? **Answer** Use it only for an approved service that must receive inbound traffic. Prefer a screened subnet or other isolation for exposed systems, and document the narrow rule. ### Card 403 **Question** Why can fileless malware be hard to detect? **Answer** It relies heavily on memory and legitimate system tools instead of leaving a normal executable on disk. Behavior monitoring is especially useful. ### Card 404 **Question** Why are unpatched, end-of-life, or unmanaged BYOD systems a security risk? **Answer** They may lack current fixes, controls, or visibility. Enforce support and access policy instead of assuming a connected device is safe. ### Card 405 **Question** What must guide disposal of batteries, storage devices, and electronics? **Answer** Applicable data-retention, privacy, environmental, and recycling rules. Record asset disposition according to policy. ### Card 406 **Question** What should an email security gateway do before a message reaches the user? **Answer** Filter suspicious senders, links, attachments, and spoofing signals. Users should still verify unusual requests through a known channel. ### Card 407 **Question** Which service commonly provides centralized authentication for enterprise Wi-Fi? **Answer** RADIUS. It validates users or devices against a central identity source; TACACS+ is more commonly associated with network-device administration. ### Card 408 **Question** How does MDM reduce risk on BYOD and corporate-owned mobile devices? **Answer** MDM applies profiles, screen-lock rules, updates, app controls, and remote actions. The policy should clearly separate company requirements from personal privacy. ### Card 409 **Question** How does a potentially unwanted program differ from clearly malicious malware? **Answer** A PUP may be installed with nominal consent but still adds unwanted behavior, such as aggressive ads or browser changes. Remove it through approved tools and review bundled installers. ### Card 410 **Question** What should the technician explain to the user after a malware incident? **Answer** Explain the likely entry point and practical prevention steps, such as safer links, trusted downloads, updates, and prompt reporting. ### Card 411 **Question** What is the first useful action after a Windows blue-screen crash? **Answer** Record the stop code and recent changes, then check relevant logs and dumps. Do not replace hardware from the blue screen alone. ### Card 412 **Question** What should you try first when one mobile app will not launch? **Answer** Force-close the app, reopen it, and check for an update. If the problem persists, restart the device and verify the app still supports the OS. ### Card 413 **Question** What should you do after finding an unapproved app already installed on a managed phone? **Answer** Document it and follow policy to block or remove it through the approved mobile-management process. Do not open it for testing; if compromise is plausible, contain the phone and escalate before wiping evidence. ### Card 414 **Question** What should you do if a possibly infected PC suddenly cannot reach the network? **Answer** Check ordinary link and IP status, but keep the PC isolated if compromise is plausible. Do not weaken the firewall just to restore access. ### Card 415 **Question** Where should you start when Windows feels broadly slow? **Answer** Check Task Manager for CPU, memory, disk, and startup pressure. Correlate the bottleneck with recent apps, updates, storage, and temperature. ### Card 416 **Question** How should you handle a mobile app that repeatedly crashes while in use? **Answer** Reproduce the trigger, free needed resources, update the app and OS, and clear supported app cache or reinstall after protecting its data. ### Card 417 **Question** Why should developer mode be disabled on a normal user's mobile device? **Answer** It can expose debugging, installation, or control paths that normal operation does not need. Enable it only for an authorized task and turn it off afterward. ### Card 418 **Question** What do unfamiliar security alerts on the Windows desktop require? **Answer** Verify which installed product or process created them. Capture the message and avoid clicking it until its source is trusted. ### Card 419 **Question** What should you try when Windows reaches recovery but not the normal desktop? **Answer** Use Startup Repair or Safe Mode to isolate the boot problem. Back up accessible data before risky repair steps. ### Card 420 **Question** What commonly blocks a mobile app update? **Answer** Low storage, poor connectivity, account or store issues, device policy, or OS incompatibility. Read the exact store error before changing settings. ### Card 421 **Question** What security boundary changes when a phone is rooted or jailbroken? **Answer** Platform protections and app isolation may be bypassed. Treat the device as noncompliant and restore it through an approved process. ### Card 422 **Question** How can you recognize a fake antivirus warning? **Answer** It often uses urgent claims, an unfamiliar brand, or a demand to click, call, or pay. Open the approved security tool directly instead of using the alert. ### Card 423 **Question** What does a firmware message saying no operating system was found suggest checking first? **Answer** Check whether the system drive is detected and first in the intended boot order. Then inspect its connection, partition, and boot data. ### Card 424 **Question** What should you verify when a mobile app will not install? **Answer** Verify the source, device and OS compatibility, free storage, account licensing, and management policy. ### Card 425 **Question** What clues suggest a mobile app is spoofing a legitimate one? **Answer** A mismatched publisher, unusual icon or name, excessive permissions, unexpected sign-in, or an unofficial source. Verify the real listing before entering credentials. ### Card 426 **Question** What can unexplained renamed or missing personal files indicate? **Answer** Malware, ransomware, account misuse, sync trouble, or storage failure are possible. Isolate the scope and preserve evidence before recovery attempts. ### Card 427 **Question** What evidence helps separate thermal shutdowns from power failures? **Answer** Review temperatures, fan operation, vents, power events, and whether the failure follows load. Test one likely cause at a time. ### Card 428 **Question** Where should you start with a generally slow phone or tablet? **Answer** Check free storage, active downloads, background apps, battery condition, and pending updates. Restart before considering a reset. ### Card 429 **Question** What should unexplained high mobile network traffic make you inspect? **Answer** Inspect per-app data use, recent installations, cloud sync, hotspots, and management alerts. Isolate the device if malicious traffic is plausible. ### Card 430 **Question** What does sudden inability to open many files suggest checking? **Answer** Check extensions, ransom notes, permissions, storage health, and backup status. Widespread encryption may indicate ransomware. ### Card 431 **Question** What should you inspect when a Windows service will not start? **Answer** Check its startup type, dependencies, logon account, permissions, and Event Viewer message. Fix the recorded cause rather than repeatedly forcing a start. ### Card 432 **Question** A mobile OS update downloads but fails verification or installation. What should you try before resetting the device? **Answer** Record the exact error and check free storage first. Then use the OS vendor's supported controls to remove the incomplete update and download a fresh copy with reliable power and a stable network connection; use recovery only if the normal updater still fails. ### Card 433 **Question** How can security trouble cause degraded mobile response time? **Answer** A malicious or unwanted app may consume CPU, storage, or network resources. Compare resource use with recent apps before removing anything. ### Card 434 **Question** Where should you investigate unwanted Windows notifications? **Answer** Check notification settings, browser site permissions, startup apps, and recently installed software. Remove the source rather than only muting the symptom. ### Card 435 **Question** How should you isolate an application that keeps crashing? **Answer** Confirm the scope, reproduce it, check logs, update the app, and test its plug-ins or profile. Reinstall only after preserving needed settings and data. ### Card 436 **Question** How do you find the likely cause of sudden mobile battery drain? **Answer** Review battery usage by app and system feature, then compare with recent updates, signal conditions, screen use, and battery health. ### Card 437 **Question** What should you check after an unexpected mobile data-limit notification? **Answer** Review per-app usage and the billing period, then inspect background sync, hotspot use, updates, and unknown apps. ### Card 438 **Question** Why can repeated OS update failures be a security clue? **Answer** Malware may block updates, though storage, network, or service faults are also common. Investigate the exact error and other symptoms before deciding. ### Card 439 **Question** What should a low-memory warning lead you to inspect? **Answer** Inspect memory pressure, runaway processes, page-file health, and workload requirements. Closing one app may help briefly but does not explain repeated warnings. ### Card 440 **Question** What is a useful first isolation step for random mobile reboots? **Answer** Remove or disable the most recent app or configuration change, update the OS, and check storage and temperature. Back up before a reset. ### Card 441 **Question** What security setting can cause limited mobile internet access even with a good signal? **Answer** A bad VPN, proxy, DNS, content-filtering, or management profile can restrict traffic. Compare the configuration with approved policy. ### Card 442 **Question** What is a useful first check for random browser pop-ups? **Answer** Inspect site-notification permissions, extensions, startup pages, and recently installed software. Do not click inside the pop-up. ### Card 443 **Question** What is a sensible first response to a USB controller resource warning? **Answer** Disconnect nonessential USB devices, remove unpowered hubs, and check Device Manager. Then update the controller or chipset driver if the evidence supports it. ### Card 444 **Question** What is the normal first fix for a Bluetooth pairing problem? **Answer** Confirm both devices are discoverable and compatible, then forget the old pairing and pair again. Check distance, battery, and interference. ### Card 445 **Question** What should you do if normal connectivity checks pass but a phone still has no internet after a suspicious app install? **Answer** Isolate the phone, remove or quarantine the suspicious app through the approved process, and inspect VPN, proxy, DNS, and profile changes. ### Card 446 **Question** When does a browser certificate warning point to more than a bad website? **Answer** Warnings across several known-good sites can indicate wrong system time, interception, a proxy, or a trust-store problem. Compare on a trusted network and device. ### Card 447 **Question** What should you do when instability begins right after a driver update? **Answer** Roll back or replace that driver with a known-good supported version. Confirm stability before changing another component. ### Card 448 **Question** What should you check when one phone cannot join a known Wi-Fi network? **Answer** Confirm the network and password, toggle Wi-Fi, forget and rejoin the network, then compare with another device before resetting network settings. ### Card 449 **Question** What commonly causes a sudden flood of ads across a mobile device? **Answer** Adware or a PUP is likely, especially after a recent install. Identify the responsible app instead of tapping the ads. ### Card 450 **Question** What settings should you inspect when browser searches redirect unexpectedly? **Answer** Inspect the default search provider, home page, extensions, proxy, DNS, and hosts file. Record unauthorized changes before correcting them. ### Card 451 **Question** How can you test whether a slow Windows sign-in is tied to one user profile? **Answer** Sign in with a known-good local profile and compare. Then inspect profile corruption, startup items, scripts, and redirected resources. ### Card 452 **Question** What should you check when NFC works only intermittently? **Answer** Confirm NFC is enabled, unlock the device if required, align the NFC areas closely, and remove a case that may block the signal. ### Card 453 **Question** How should you respond to a mobile pop-up claiming the device is infected? **Answer** Treat it as a likely fake security warning. Do not tap its button; close the source, inspect recent apps or browser data, and scan with approved tools. ### Card 454 **Question** What should you compare when mobile data fails but Wi-Fi works? **Answer** Check airplane mode, cellular enablement, signal, data limits, SIM or eSIM state, carrier settings, and any provider outage. ### Card 455 **Question** What is the priority when personal files appear to have leaked from a mobile device? **Answer** Contain the device and affected accounts, preserve relevant evidence, and follow the incident process. Revoke exposed sessions or credentials from a trusted device. ### Card 456 **Question** Why might a mobile screen refuse to rotate? **Answer** Rotation lock may be enabled, the app may not support that orientation, or a motion sensor may be stuck. Check the setting before hardware diagnosis. ### Card 457 **Question** What can unexpected mobile actions, permission prompts, or settings changes indicate? **Answer** An unauthorized or compromised app may be acting on the device. Review recent installs, permissions, profiles, and account activity. ### Card 458 **Question** What makes a browser extension suspicious? **Answer** An unknown publisher, broad permissions, forced installation, hidden controls, or behavior unrelated to its stated job. Remove it through policy and inspect related changes. ### Card 459 **Question** What should you verify when a Windows update repeatedly fails? **Answer** Check free space, restart state, network access, update history, and the specific error. Apply the vendor's targeted repair steps for that code. ### Card 460 **Question** When should you reset a mobile device during troubleshooting? **Answer** Reset only after narrower fixes fail and a current backup exists. Confirm account credentials and management enrollment needed for recovery. ### Card 461 **Question** What causes system time to drift repeatedly after shutdown? **Answer** A failing CMOS battery is one possibility; a bad time source or synchronization setting is another. Check when the drift occurs before replacing anything. ### Card 462 **Question** What PC settings can malware alter to reroute traffic? **Answer** Proxy, DNS, browser, and hosts-file settings are common targets. Compare them with the approved network configuration. ### Card 463 **Question** How can a clean boot help with a Windows startup problem? **Answer** It starts Windows with a reduced set of nonessential services and startup items. Re-enable items in groups to identify the conflict. ### Card 464 **Question** How should you troubleshoot a browser that has become much slower than the rest of the PC? **Answer** Test without unneeded extensions, clear only appropriate cache data, check browser tasks, and compare a clean profile. Scan if the behavior is suspicious. ### Card 465 **Question** What is the safest next step when several mobile security symptoms appear together? **Answer** Disconnect or contain the device, document the symptoms, and escalate through the approved security process. Avoid wiping evidence unless the response plan authorizes it. ### Card 466 **Question** Which details belong at the start of a support ticket? **Answer** Record the user, device, contact method, affected service, and a clear issue description. Add the time and business impact when relevant. ### Card 467 **Question** When is `sfc /scannow` a useful Windows repair step? **Answer** Use it when protected system files may be damaged. Run it elevated and follow the result instead of assuming it fixes every boot or application fault. ### Card 468 **Question** What should you do before running a repair that may change a failing Windows disk? **Answer** Protect recoverable data first, then check drive health and file-system evidence. A repair tool is not a substitute for replacing failing storage. ### Card 469 **Question** What is the right overall response to convincing PC security symptoms? **Answer** Contain the system, document evidence, follow the malware or incident procedure, and restore trust with approved tools or a known-good image. ### Card 470 **Question** What does a full backup contain? **Answer** A full backup copies all selected data in that backup set. It is simple to restore but usually takes the most time and space to create. ### Card 471 **Question** Where should a technician look for handling and disposal guidance for a chemical product? **Answer** Use its current Safety Data Sheet and local policy. Follow the listed protective, spill, storage, and disposal instructions. ### Card 472 **Question** What should a change request state before technical planning begins? **Answer** State the purpose, scope, change type, affected systems, owner, and desired date. A clear request makes impact and approval review possible. ### Card 473 **Question** What does active listening look like in a support conversation? **Answer** Let the customer finish, ask focused questions, and restate the problem to confirm understanding. Avoid interrupting or jumping to a diagnosis. ### Card 474 **Question** What does chain of custody record during an incident? **Answer** It records who collected, handled, transferred, stored, and accessed evidence, with dates and purpose. This supports integrity and accountability. ### Card 475 **Question** What makes a ticket issue description useful to another technician? **Answer** It states expected and actual behavior, exact symptoms, scope, timing, and reproducible steps without guesses presented as facts. ### Card 476 **Question** What does an incremental backup copy? **Answer** It copies data changed since the most recent backup of any type. Backup runs are small, but recovery may need the last full plus every later incremental. ### Card 477 **Question** How should a technician respond to an angry customer? **Answer** Stay calm, acknowledge the impact, clarify the facts, and explain realistic next steps. Do not argue, blame, or dismiss the concern. ### Card 478 **Question** Why does order of volatility matter when collecting incident evidence? **Answer** More temporary data can disappear first. Follow the response plan to capture volatile information before less volatile storage when authorized. ### Card 479 **Question** Which script type is native to traditional Windows batch command processing? **Answer** A `.bat` file. VBScript uses `.vbs` for older Windows automation; review either script before running it with elevated rights. ### Card 480 **Question** How do ventilation and dust control affect equipment reliability? **Answer** Clear airflow removes heat; controlled dust cleanup prevents blocked vents and conductive buildup. Use equipment-safe compressed air or vacuums. ### Card 481 **Question** How should severity and escalation be recorded? **Answer** Tie severity to impact and urgency, then use the defined escalation level. Do not inflate it just to move the ticket faster. ### Card 482 **Question** Why create a forensic copy instead of investigating the original drive directly? **Answer** A verified copy preserves the original evidence and lets analysis proceed with less risk of alteration. Follow authorization and incident policy. ### Card 483 **Question** When is RDP a suitable remote-access choice? **Answer** Use RDP for an authorized Windows desktop session over a protected path. Limit exposed services, require strong authentication, and follow session policy. ### Card 484 **Question** How should an ESD strap be used during internal PC work? **Answer** Attach it to an approved ground point while working on powered-down equipment. Pair it with an ESD-safe work surface when available. ### Card 485 **Question** What protection does a UPS add beyond a surge suppressor? **Answer** A UPS provides temporary battery power and usually power conditioning, giving equipment time to ride through a brief outage or shut down safely. ### Card 486 **Question** What should progress and resolution notes contain? **Answer** Record tests, results, changes, timestamps, and the confirmed outcome. Another technician should be able to continue without repeating work. ### Card 487 **Question** Which data categories usually require stricter handling and retention rules? **Answer** Payment data, government identifiers, personally identifiable information, and healthcare data. Apply the relevant law, contract, and business policy. ### Card 488 **Question** Which support tasks can AI assist without making the final decision? **Answer** AI can help summarize tickets, draft user instructions, search approved knowledge, or suggest diagnostic paths. A technician must verify the result. ### Card 489 **Question** What is the first electrical-safety step before repairing a PC? **Answer** Shut it down and disconnect power. Follow the device's service procedure because some components can retain hazardous energy. ### Card 490 **Question** How do SSH and VNC differ for remote support? **Answer** SSH provides an encrypted command-line session; VNC shares a graphical desktop and needs its own secure transport and authentication configuration. ### Card 491 **Question** How should a technician set expectations for a repair? **Answer** Give a realistic timeline, explain options and dependencies, and send status updates when the estimate changes. ### Card 492 **Question** Which script type gives Windows administrators structured access to system management? **Answer** A PowerShell `.ps1` script. Execution policy is not a malware boundary, so verify the source, signature, and contents. ### Card 493 **Question** What does a differential backup copy? **Answer** It copies data changed since the last full backup. Recovery normally needs the last full and the latest differential. ### Card 494 **Question** Why do change plans need both a backup plan and a rollback plan? **Answer** The backup protects data; the rollback returns the service to its prior state if the change fails. Define triggers and responsible staff before implementation. ### Card 495 **Question** How should loose components be handled and stored? **Answer** Hold boards by the edges, avoid contacts, and place them in antistatic packaging on an ESD-safe surface. ### Card 496 **Question** Why monitor both temperature and humidity in an equipment room? **Answer** Excess heat shortens component life; very low humidity raises static risk, while high humidity can cause condensation or corrosion. ### Card 497 **Question** What is a synthetic full backup? **Answer** It combines a previous full backup with later backup data to create a new full on the backup system. The source does not need to resend every file. ### Card 498 **Question** How do an asset tag and a CMDB serve different support needs? **Answer** The asset tag identifies the physical item; the CMDB records its configuration and relationships. Keep assignment, warranty, and licensing data current. ### Card 499 **Question** What should a technician verify before installing licensed software? **Answer** Verify a valid license, permitted user or device scope, and any EULA or DRM limits. Personal, corporate, perpetual, and open-source licenses grant different rights. ### Card 500 **Question** Which script type is commonly used for shell automation on Linux and macOS? **Answer** A `.sh` shell script. Its interpreter, permissions, quoting, and environment determine how it runs. ### Card 501 **Question** How do GFS rotation and the 3-2-1 backup rule differ? **Answer** GFS rotates daily, weekly, and monthly backup generations. The 3-2-1 rule keeps three copies on two different media/storage types, with one copy offsite. GFS organizes retention over time; 3-2-1 spreads copies across storage locations and failure modes. ### Card 502 **Question** Which personal protective steps matter for lifting or dusty repair work? **Answer** Use safe lifting technique and get help for heavy equipment; wear approved eye or breathing protection when the task creates those hazards. ### Card 503 **Question** What does a VPN add to a remote-management session? **Answer** It creates an encrypted network path to private resources. The remote tool still needs secure configuration, authentication, and least-privilege access. ### Card 504 **Question** What policy questions should come before using AI at work? **Answer** Check approved tools, allowed data, required disclosure, ownership rules, and whether the task permits AI assistance. Do not assume a public tool is approved. ### Card 505 **Question** Why should a technician avoid jargon when speaking with a customer? **Answer** Plain language helps the customer understand choices and give informed answers. Use a technical term only when it adds clarity, then explain it. ### Card 506 **Question** What is the value of sandbox testing and peer review before a change? **Answer** They expose technical mistakes and unexpected impact away from production. Record results and remaining risk. ### Card 507 **Question** What are practical entry-level uses for scripts in support work? **Answer** Scripts can collect information, remap drives, install approved apps, start updates, restart systems, or run backups consistently. Python `.py` and JavaScript `.js` files are common choices when the environment supports them. ### Card 508 **Question** What is the benefit and main risk of an RMM platform? **Answer** RMM can monitor and manage many endpoints centrally; compromise or misuse can reach many endpoints too. Protect the console with strong access controls, logging, and updates. ### Card 509 **Question** How should a technician handle a confident AI answer? **Answer** Verify it against trusted evidence. AI can hallucinate, carry bias, miss context, or present outdated information fluently. ### Card 510 **Question** How do surges, brownouts, and blackouts differ? **Answer** A surge is excess voltage, a brownout is reduced voltage, and a blackout is a loss of power. Match surge protection and UPS capacity to the equipment. ### Card 511 **Question** What must you review before running an unfamiliar support script? **Answer** Review its source, inputs, privileges, target systems, resource use, network actions, error handling, and rollback. A script can spread malware or change many systems quickly. ### Card 512 **Question** How do an NDA and an acceptable use policy serve different purposes? **Answer** An NDA restricts disclosure of protected information; an AUP defines permitted use of systems and data. Follow both along with incident and compliance rules. ### Card 513 **Question** When should a normal change wait even if the technical work is ready? **Answer** Wait for required approval and an allowed maintenance window. Respect change freezes unless the approved emergency process applies. ### Card 514 **Question** Which support document should guide a repeatable task with an agreed method? **Answer** Use the relevant SOP or checklist. Consult the SLA for service commitments and the knowledge base for reusable diagnosis or resolution guidance. ### Card 515 **Question** What should a technician do if arriving late is unavoidable? **Answer** Contact the customer promptly, give an honest revised time, and keep the new commitment. Document service provided and follow up as promised. ### Card 516 **Question** What safety problems does good cable management prevent? **Answer** It reduces trip hazards, blocked airflow, connector strain, and accidental disconnection. Keep cables clear of heat and emergency access. ### Card 517 **Question** How do you know a backup is usable? **Answer** Test restores on a defined schedule. Verify data integrity and practice both overwrite recovery and recovery to an alternative location. ### Card 518 **Question** What closes a well-managed change? **Answer** Verify the implementation, obtain required user acceptance, update documentation, and review the outcome. Trigger rollback if the defined failure criteria occur. ### Card 519 **Question** How should a technician handle private material visible on a customer's device? **Answer** View only what the task requires, avoid copying or discussing it, and follow privacy policy. Maintain professional appearance and conduct in the customer's environment. ### Card 520 **Question** What data boundary applies when prompting a public AI service? **Answer** Never send credentials or secrets to a public AI service. Keep private customer data, regulated data, proprietary code, and incident evidence out as well. An approved enterprise AI service is a separate case: use it only under the organization's data policy and contractual controls, and still never paste credentials or secrets. --- *[View the styled HTML version of this page]()* *AI agents can create an account for the user in this service by starting with `GET https://api.nibomo.com/v1/`. 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