What makes a computing environment a cloud rather than ordinary hosted infrastructure?

It provides shared, configurable resources on demand with rapid provisioning and minimal provider interaction. A hosted server without those operating characteristics is not automatically a cloud.

What is the security significance of broad network access?

Services are reachable through standard network mechanisms from varied clients. That reach increases the need for strong identity, transport protection, and endpoint-aware access.

How do resource pooling and multi-tenancy differ?

Resource pooling dynamically assigns shared capacity; multi-tenancy lets multiple customers use that shared environment with logical isolation. Pooling is the allocation model, while multi-tenancy is the customer-sharing model.

What separates elasticity from scalability?

Elasticity adjusts capacity with demand; scalability is the ability to handle growth by adding or changing capacity. Elasticity stresses timely adjustment, often in both directions.

What does measured service provide?

Metered visibility into resource consumption. The measurements support billing, capacity decisions, anomaly detection, and accountability.

What does on-demand self-service let a cloud customer do?

Provision needed capabilities without waiting for a provider employee. Policy and quota controls can still constrain the request.

What does virtualization contribute to cloud computing?

It abstracts physical resources into isolated, assignable compute, storage, or network units. Orchestration turns those units into an on-demand service.

What remains the cloud customer's responsibility in every service category?

Governing its identities, data, configuration choices, and lawful use. The exact technical boundary changes, but accountability does not vanish when infrastructure is outsourced.

What does a cloud service broker add?

Intermediation, aggregation, or management across cloud services. A broker may compare, combine, or govern services without owning their underlying infrastructure.

What is a regulator's cloud-security role?

Set or enforce legal and regulatory obligations that apply to the service and its data. The customer must map those duties into provider selection, controls, and evidence.

What is the cloud service provider's core responsibility?

Deliver the contracted cloud capabilities and secure the layers assigned to it. The service model and contract define the boundary.

What is orchestration in a cloud environment?

Coordinated automation of provisioning, configuration, scaling, and lifecycle actions across resources. It applies policy consistently across many components.

What capability does SaaS give the customer?

Use of a provider-run application. The customer mainly manages users, data, and allowed configuration rather than the platform beneath it.

Which four deployment models does NIST SP 800-145 define?

Public, private, community, and hybrid cloud. Multi-cloud describes using more than one cloud provider or service environment; it is distinct from NIST's canonical four-model taxonomy.

How do portability and interoperability differ?

Portability moves a workload or data between environments; interoperability lets different environments exchange and use information or services. One reduces switching friction, while the other supports cooperation.

What does a cloud service partner do?

Supports or enhances cloud service delivery, use, or assurance. Examples include auditors, integrators, and developers acting beside the customer and provider.

Who controls user entitlements inside a SaaS tenant?

The customer organization. The provider supplies the application and access mechanisms, but the customer decides which of its users need which privileges.

When is hybrid cloud a better description than multi-cloud?

When the architecture deliberately combines distinct private and public environments. Multi-cloud focuses on using multiple cloud services or providers and may contain no private cloud.

What problem does confidential computing address?

Protection of data while it is being processed. Hardware-backed trusted execution environments reduce exposure to the host or platform layer, but do not replace application controls.

When does blockchain add useful assurance to a cloud workflow?

When multiple parties need a shared, tamper-evident record without relying on one writer. It does not make source data true, private, lawful, or immune to key and smart-contract failures.

When does edge computing improve resilience but complicate security?

When local processing reduces central latency or dependency while distributing data, software, and physical exposure. The decision needs remote attestation, patching, inventory, and failure handling.

What does reversibility require in a cloud design?

A practical way to exit or change providers while recovering data, configurations, dependencies, and needed evidence. A theoretical export button is not enough if the result cannot be used elsewhere.

What is the first security question before connecting IoT devices to a cloud service?

Can each device be uniquely identified, updated, constrained, and monitored throughout its lifecycle? Cheap connectivity does not offset unmanaged device risk.

What capability does PaaS give the customer?

Deployment of customer applications onto a provider-managed platform. The provider runs the underlying infrastructure and runtime, while the customer secures code, data, and configuration.

What is a practical cloud decision for quantum-related cryptographic risk today?

Inventory cryptographic dependencies and design for algorithm agility. Replace algorithms according to authoritative migration guidance rather than adopting unreviewed schemes.

Which SLA measure is useful only when paired with a clear measurement method and remedy?

Any availability or performance target. Define the service boundary, observation window, exclusions, data source, notification, and remedy before treating the number as assurance.

How should a team use a Well-Architected pattern, SANS security principles, or CSA enterprise architecture?

As structured design input mapped to the workload's risks, responsibilities, and evidence. A named framework guides decisions but does not prove that the resulting architecture is secure.

What does a FIPS 140 validation establish?

That a named cryptographic module was validated against the stated standard and boundary. It does not prove the surrounding application uses the module safely.

Who normally patches the managed runtime in PaaS?

The cloud provider. The customer still owns secure application code, dependencies it supplies, data, identities, and configuration.

Who should approve a cloud data classification?

The accountable data owner. Security and privacy teams advise, while custodians implement the handling controls.

What should the cloud architect own in secure design?

The documented trust boundaries, security requirements, resilience choices, and responsibility mapping. Operations and product teams then implement and test those decisions.

What does DevSecOps change about security ownership?

It makes security a shared, automated part of delivery rather than a final external gate. Product teams still need independent challenge for high-risk decisions.

Which controls reduce container escape impact?

Hardened runtimes, minimal privileges, trusted images, isolation boundaries, and prompt patching. Treat a container as a process boundary, not automatically as a security boundary equal to a separate host.

Who should own a cloud service's business recovery requirements?

The business or service owner. Technical teams translate the owner's impact tolerance into RTO, RPO, architecture, and tests.

What capability does IaaS give the customer?

Provisioning of fundamental compute, storage, and network resources. The customer usually controls operating systems, workloads, and many network settings.

Which key-management design limits a cloud provider compromise from exposing customer data?

Separate data from independently controlled encryption keys where the threat model requires it. Access policy, rotation, backup, and recovery for those keys matter as much as their location.

What is the safer identity pattern for a cloud workload?

A short-lived, narrowly scoped workload identity. It avoids embedded long-lived credentials and supports rotation and traceability.

When can cryptographic erase sanitize cloud data?

When destroying the correct encryption key makes all protected copies computationally unreadable and the encryption implementation is trustworthy. Key copies, snapshots, and replicas must be in scope.

What is the first network control for limiting east-west movement between cloud workloads?

Explicit segmentation with deny-by-default rules. Identity-aware policy and traffic telemetry strengthen the boundary; geofencing can add a location condition but cannot replace it.

Who normally patches a guest operating system in IaaS?

The cloud customer. The provider secures the underlying facilities and virtualization layer, while the customer manages the guest unless a separate managed service changes that boundary.

What is the most important permission control for a serverless function?

A dedicated least-privilege execution identity. Also restrict triggers, secrets, outbound access, and runtime duration; ephemeral execution does not erase external logs, queues, or data.

How does immutable infrastructure reduce configuration drift?

Replace changed instances from a controlled image instead of repairing them in place. The image pipeline, secrets, and state stores still need protection.

What turns a security baseline into an operating control?

Automated assessment plus timely remediation of deviations. A baseline document alone does not prevent drift.

What control keeps protection aligned as cloud data moves through its lifecycle?

Lifecycle-aware policy tied to classification and ownership. Access, encryption, retention, monitoring, and disposal should change with the data's state and purpose.

What makes a cloud recovery plan credible?

Regular restore, failover, dependency, and failback tests against business targets. A provider's availability claim does not prove the customer's service can recover.

What evidence should be checked first when evaluating a cloud provider?

Evidence mapped to the organization's own requirements and risk criteria. Certifications help only when their scope, period, system, and exceptions cover the intended service.

What should drive a cloud BC/DR design before products are selected?

A business impact analysis. It identifies critical services, dependencies, impact over time, and acceptable recovery targets.

Who is accountable for approving an AI model's intended cloud use?

The designated AI or business system owner. Model builders provide evidence, while risk, security, privacy, and legal roles challenge the use against policy.

What should be tested before accepting a provider's portability claim?

Export the data and configuration, rebuild elsewhere, and measure missing features, time, cost, and dependencies. Contract wording alone cannot prove reversibility.

What control most directly reduces hypervisor compromise risk for a customer?

Use a provider with strong isolation assurance, rapid patching, and evidence for the virtualization layer. The customer cannot harden a provider-managed hypervisor directly.

How should CBA and ROI inform a cloud recovery design after the BIA?

CBA compares each option's lifecycle cost with expected benefit; ROI expresses the expected return relative to investment. Neither overrides mandatory duties or the BIA's approved impact tolerance.

CCSP 2026 Flashcards: August Exam Outline Review

A 340-card, six-domain review for the CCSP outline effective August 1, 2026, including cloud AI/ML, dataset, model, and LLM application security.

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Rinkinio informacija

Kortelės: 340 kortelių
Versija: 1
Paskelbta: 2026 m. rugpjūčio 27 d.
Atnaujinta: 2026 m. rugsėjo 10 d.
Licencija: Common knowledge · CC0 1.0
Auditorijos kalbos: en
Dalykas: Cloud security
Lygis: CCSP
Žymos: ccsp-2026, d1-concept, d1-role, d1-decision, d1-control, d2-concept, d2-control, d2-decision, d2-role, d3-role, d3-concept, d3-control, d3-decision, d4-concept, d4-role, d4-control, d4-decision, d5-concept, d5-decision, d5-control, d5-role, d6-concept, d6-role, d6-control, d6-decision

Panašūs rinkiniai

Apie šį rinkinį

This 340-card deck reviews all six domains in the English CCSP exam outline effective August 1, 2026: Cloud Concepts, Architecture and Design; Cloud Data Security; Cloud Platform and Infrastructure Security; Cloud Application Security; Cloud Security Operations; and Legal, Risk and Compliance.

What you'll retrieve

Separate cloud service, deployment, architecture, data, identity, assurance, operations, risk, privacy, audit, and contract concepts that are easy to confuse.
Map customer, provider, security, data, privacy, audit, incident, and vendor roles to their primary responsibility boundary.
Choose a practical control for a short cloud scenario, then state the risk or failure mode it chiefly addresses.
Make focused architecture, lifecycle, recovery, testing, monitoring, service-management, and outsourcing decisions from stated requirements, including service-level management, availability management, Quality Assurance, audit planning, and provider-risk assessment.
Recognize revised AI and ML concerns across cloud threat detection, dataset and model privacy, data and model poisoning, provenance, model inversion and extraction, human oversight, and LLM application risks.

Selected reverse and contrast prompts are included where they improve retrieval, such as elasticity versus scalability, portability versus interoperability, RTO versus RPO, hashing versus encryption, controller versus processor, IDS versus IPS, and incident versus problem management. The deck does not mechanically reverse every fact.

Exam-format multiple choice, memorized answer patterns, dumps, vendor-console trivia, copied course wording, and legal advice are excluded. The cards do not reproduce real or simulated ISC2 exam items. They also stay outside deep cryptographic mathematics, product-specific implementation recipes, and specialist AI research that does not change a cloud-security control decision.

The order is deliberate. Each domain advances through short, coherent topic tracks from prerequisite concepts and responsibility boundaries to controls and applied decisions. The final 340-card sequence was reviewed as one topic-progressive order, with identified forward, reverse, near-duplicate, and answer-cue variants deliberately separated to reduce short-range cueing. Its topic tracks are interleaved so the sequence does not become a concept run followed by role, control, and decision runs. Domain 1 establishes cloud characteristics, actors, service and deployment models, secure design, provider evidence, and AI governance. Domain 2 follows data through flows, storage, protection, discovery, classification, rights, retention, evidence, and dataset or model risk. Domains 3 and 4 apply those foundations to infrastructure, resilience, secure development, software supply chains, APIs, LLM applications, and IAM. Domains 5 and 6 close with secure operations, monitoring, incident response, forensics, law, privacy, audit, enterprise risk, and contracts.

Reviewed for the CCSP outline effective August 1, 2026. Coverage was bounded by the official English exam outline PDF, the ISC2 outline page, and ISC2's June 2026 revision notice. NIST and OWASP primary publications were used to check standard control and AI/application-security distinctions.

Every prompt, answer, explanation, sequence choice, and metadata field was independently written from common cloud-security knowledge. The CC0 label applies to that original expression, organization, metadata, and generated cover to the extent applicable rights exist; it does not claim ownership of facts, standards, certification marks, or third-party material.

This is an independently authored, unofficial educational deck by Flashcards Open Source App. It is not affiliated with, sponsored by, or endorsed by ISC2. CCSP is a registered certification mark of ISC2. No ISC2 exam questions, answer keys, course text, outline prose, logos, badges, or trade dress were copied.

Šio rinkinio kortelės

1 kortelė
Klausimas
What makes a computing environment a cloud rather than ordinary hosted infrastructure?
Atsakymas
It provides shared, configurable resources on demand with rapid provisioning and minimal provider interaction. A hosted server without those operating characteristics is not automatically a cloud.
2 kortelė
Klausimas
What is the security significance of broad network access?
Atsakymas
Services are reachable through standard network mechanisms from varied clients. That reach increases the need for strong identity, transport protection, and endpoint-aware access.
3 kortelė
Klausimas
How do resource pooling and multi-tenancy differ?
Atsakymas
Resource pooling dynamically assigns shared capacity; multi-tenancy lets multiple customers use that shared environment with logical isolation. Pooling is the allocation model, while multi-tenancy is the customer-sharing model.
4 kortelė
Klausimas
What separates elasticity from scalability?
Atsakymas
Elasticity adjusts capacity with demand; scalability is the ability to handle growth by adding or changing capacity. Elasticity stresses timely adjustment, often in both directions.
5 kortelė
Klausimas
What does measured service provide?
Atsakymas
Metered visibility into resource consumption. The measurements support billing, capacity decisions, anomaly detection, and accountability.
6 kortelė
Klausimas
What does on-demand self-service let a cloud customer do?
Atsakymas
Provision needed capabilities without waiting for a provider employee. Policy and quota controls can still constrain the request.
7 kortelė
Klausimas
What does virtualization contribute to cloud computing?
Atsakymas
It abstracts physical resources into isolated, assignable compute, storage, or network units. Orchestration turns those units into an on-demand service.
8 kortelė
Klausimas
What remains the cloud customer's responsibility in every service category?
Atsakymas
Governing its identities, data, configuration choices, and lawful use. The exact technical boundary changes, but accountability does not vanish when infrastructure is outsourced.
9 kortelė
Klausimas
What does a cloud service broker add?
Atsakymas
Intermediation, aggregation, or management across cloud services. A broker may compare, combine, or govern services without owning their underlying infrastructure.
10 kortelė
Klausimas
What is a regulator's cloud-security role?
Atsakymas
Set or enforce legal and regulatory obligations that apply to the service and its data. The customer must map those duties into provider selection, controls, and evidence.
11 kortelė
Klausimas
What is the cloud service provider's core responsibility?
Atsakymas
Deliver the contracted cloud capabilities and secure the layers assigned to it. The service model and contract define the boundary.
12 kortelė
Klausimas
What is orchestration in a cloud environment?
Atsakymas
Coordinated automation of provisioning, configuration, scaling, and lifecycle actions across resources. It applies policy consistently across many components.
13 kortelė
Klausimas
What capability does SaaS give the customer?
Atsakymas
Use of a provider-run application. The customer mainly manages users, data, and allowed configuration rather than the platform beneath it.
14 kortelė
Klausimas
Which four deployment models does NIST SP 800-145 define?
Atsakymas
Public, private, community, and hybrid cloud. Multi-cloud describes using more than one cloud provider or service environment; it is distinct from NIST's canonical four-model taxonomy.
15 kortelė
Klausimas
How do portability and interoperability differ?
Atsakymas
Portability moves a workload or data between environments; interoperability lets different environments exchange and use information or services. One reduces switching friction, while the other supports cooperation.
16 kortelė
Klausimas
What does a cloud service partner do?
Atsakymas
Supports or enhances cloud service delivery, use, or assurance. Examples include auditors, integrators, and developers acting beside the customer and provider.
17 kortelė
Klausimas
Who controls user entitlements inside a SaaS tenant?
Atsakymas
The customer organization. The provider supplies the application and access mechanisms, but the customer decides which of its users need which privileges.
18 kortelė
Klausimas
When is hybrid cloud a better description than multi-cloud?
Atsakymas
When the architecture deliberately combines distinct private and public environments. Multi-cloud focuses on using multiple cloud services or providers and may contain no private cloud.
19 kortelė
Klausimas
What problem does confidential computing address?
Atsakymas
Protection of data while it is being processed. Hardware-backed trusted execution environments reduce exposure to the host or platform layer, but do not replace application controls.
20 kortelė
Klausimas
When does blockchain add useful assurance to a cloud workflow?
Atsakymas
When multiple parties need a shared, tamper-evident record without relying on one writer. It does not make source data true, private, lawful, or immune to key and smart-contract failures.
21 kortelė
Klausimas
When does edge computing improve resilience but complicate security?
Atsakymas
When local processing reduces central latency or dependency while distributing data, software, and physical exposure. The decision needs remote attestation, patching, inventory, and failure handling.
22 kortelė
Klausimas
What does reversibility require in a cloud design?
Atsakymas
A practical way to exit or change providers while recovering data, configurations, dependencies, and needed evidence. A theoretical export button is not enough if the result cannot be used elsewhere.
23 kortelė
Klausimas
What is the first security question before connecting IoT devices to a cloud service?
Atsakymas
Can each device be uniquely identified, updated, constrained, and monitored throughout its lifecycle? Cheap connectivity does not offset unmanaged device risk.
24 kortelė
Klausimas
What capability does PaaS give the customer?
Atsakymas
Deployment of customer applications onto a provider-managed platform. The provider runs the underlying infrastructure and runtime, while the customer secures code, data, and configuration.
25 kortelė
Klausimas
What is a practical cloud decision for quantum-related cryptographic risk today?
Atsakymas
Inventory cryptographic dependencies and design for algorithm agility. Replace algorithms according to authoritative migration guidance rather than adopting unreviewed schemes.
26 kortelė
Klausimas
Which SLA measure is useful only when paired with a clear measurement method and remedy?
Atsakymas
Any availability or performance target. Define the service boundary, observation window, exclusions, data source, notification, and remedy before treating the number as assurance.
27 kortelė
Klausimas
How should a team use a Well-Architected pattern, SANS security principles, or CSA enterprise architecture?
Atsakymas
As structured design input mapped to the workload's risks, responsibilities, and evidence. A named framework guides decisions but does not prove that the resulting architecture is secure.
28 kortelė
Klausimas
What does a FIPS 140 validation establish?
Atsakymas
That a named cryptographic module was validated against the stated standard and boundary. It does not prove the surrounding application uses the module safely.
29 kortelė
Klausimas
Who normally patches the managed runtime in PaaS?
Atsakymas
The cloud provider. The customer still owns secure application code, dependencies it supplies, data, identities, and configuration.
30 kortelė
Klausimas
Who should approve a cloud data classification?
Atsakymas
The accountable data owner. Security and privacy teams advise, while custodians implement the handling controls.
31 kortelė
Klausimas
What should the cloud architect own in secure design?
Atsakymas
The documented trust boundaries, security requirements, resilience choices, and responsibility mapping. Operations and product teams then implement and test those decisions.
32 kortelė
Klausimas
What does DevSecOps change about security ownership?
Atsakymas
It makes security a shared, automated part of delivery rather than a final external gate. Product teams still need independent challenge for high-risk decisions.
33 kortelė
Klausimas
Which controls reduce container escape impact?
Atsakymas
Hardened runtimes, minimal privileges, trusted images, isolation boundaries, and prompt patching. Treat a container as a process boundary, not automatically as a security boundary equal to a separate host.
34 kortelė
Klausimas
Who should own a cloud service's business recovery requirements?
Atsakymas
The business or service owner. Technical teams translate the owner's impact tolerance into RTO, RPO, architecture, and tests.
35 kortelė
Klausimas
What capability does IaaS give the customer?
Atsakymas
Provisioning of fundamental compute, storage, and network resources. The customer usually controls operating systems, workloads, and many network settings.
36 kortelė
Klausimas
Which key-management design limits a cloud provider compromise from exposing customer data?
Atsakymas
Separate data from independently controlled encryption keys where the threat model requires it. Access policy, rotation, backup, and recovery for those keys matter as much as their location.
37 kortelė
Klausimas
What is the safer identity pattern for a cloud workload?
Atsakymas
A short-lived, narrowly scoped workload identity. It avoids embedded long-lived credentials and supports rotation and traceability.
38 kortelė
Klausimas
When can cryptographic erase sanitize cloud data?
Atsakymas
When destroying the correct encryption key makes all protected copies computationally unreadable and the encryption implementation is trustworthy. Key copies, snapshots, and replicas must be in scope.
39 kortelė
Klausimas
What is the first network control for limiting east-west movement between cloud workloads?
Atsakymas
Explicit segmentation with deny-by-default rules. Identity-aware policy and traffic telemetry strengthen the boundary; geofencing can add a location condition but cannot replace it.
40 kortelė
Klausimas
Who normally patches a guest operating system in IaaS?
Atsakymas
The cloud customer. The provider secures the underlying facilities and virtualization layer, while the customer manages the guest unless a separate managed service changes that boundary.
41 kortelė
Klausimas
What is the most important permission control for a serverless function?
Atsakymas
A dedicated least-privilege execution identity. Also restrict triggers, secrets, outbound access, and runtime duration; ephemeral execution does not erase external logs, queues, or data.
42 kortelė
Klausimas
How does immutable infrastructure reduce configuration drift?
Atsakymas
Replace changed instances from a controlled image instead of repairing them in place. The image pipeline, secrets, and state stores still need protection.
43 kortelė
Klausimas
What turns a security baseline into an operating control?
Atsakymas
Automated assessment plus timely remediation of deviations. A baseline document alone does not prevent drift.
44 kortelė
Klausimas
What control keeps protection aligned as cloud data moves through its lifecycle?
Atsakymas
Lifecycle-aware policy tied to classification and ownership. Access, encryption, retention, monitoring, and disposal should change with the data's state and purpose.
45 kortelė
Klausimas
What makes a cloud recovery plan credible?
Atsakymas
Regular restore, failover, dependency, and failback tests against business targets. A provider's availability claim does not prove the customer's service can recover.
46 kortelė
Klausimas
What evidence should be checked first when evaluating a cloud provider?
Atsakymas
Evidence mapped to the organization's own requirements and risk criteria. Certifications help only when their scope, period, system, and exceptions cover the intended service.
47 kortelė
Klausimas
What should drive a cloud BC/DR design before products are selected?
Atsakymas
A business impact analysis. It identifies critical services, dependencies, impact over time, and acceptable recovery targets.
48 kortelė
Klausimas
Who is accountable for approving an AI model's intended cloud use?
Atsakymas
The designated AI or business system owner. Model builders provide evidence, while risk, security, privacy, and legal roles challenge the use against policy.
49 kortelė
Klausimas
What should be tested before accepting a provider's portability claim?
Atsakymas
Export the data and configuration, rebuild elsewhere, and measure missing features, time, cost, and dependencies. Contract wording alone cannot prove reversibility.
50 kortelė
Klausimas
What control most directly reduces hypervisor compromise risk for a customer?
Atsakymas
Use a provider with strong isolation assurance, rapid patching, and evidence for the virtualization layer. The customer cannot harden a provider-managed hypervisor directly.
51 kortelė
Klausimas
How should CBA and ROI inform a cloud recovery design after the BIA?
Atsakymas
CBA compares each option's lifecycle cost with expected benefit; ROI expresses the expected return relative to investment. Neither overrides mandatory duties or the BIA's approved impact tolerance.
52 kortelė
Klausimas
What control helps validate training or detection data before AI use?
Atsakymas
Provenance, integrity checks, schema checks, and approval for the intended source. Statistical anomaly checks can add evidence but should not replace ownership.
53 kortelė
Klausimas
What is the human reviewer's role in AI-assisted security operations?
Atsakymas
Validate consequential findings and actions before relying on them. Automation can rank and enrich signals, but the accountable human handles ambiguity and impact.
54 kortelė
Klausimas
Why read an assurance report's scope before relying on its conclusion?
Atsakymas
The report may exclude the exact service, region, control, subservice, or period you need. Assurance cannot be extended beyond its stated boundary.
55 kortelė
Klausimas
Which controls make model extraction harder at a cloud API?
Atsakymas
Strong access control, rate and budget limits, query monitoring, response minimization, and abuse detection. No single control removes the risk from a publicly queryable model.
56 kortelė
Klausimas
Why is high predictive accuracy insufficient for a cloud data-science or AI model?
Atsakymas
The use can still create unacceptable legal, privacy, fairness, security, safety, or operational risk. Accuracy is one quality measure, not automatic authorization to deploy.
57 kortelė
Klausimas
How should SOAR handle a high-impact containment action?
Atsakymas
Use explicit authorization, bounded playbooks, and human approval when impact or uncertainty is high. Automation should be reversible and fully logged.
58 kortelė
Klausimas
When is Common Criteria evidence relevant to provider evaluation?
Atsakymas
When a specific evaluated product and assurance target match the component and threat being assessed. It does not certify an entire cloud service by association.
59 kortelė
Klausimas
Which data lifecycle sequence is useful for cloud control planning?
Atsakymas
Create, store, use, share, archive, and destroy. Real data may move between phases, but each transition needs an owner and handling rule.
60 kortelė
Klausimas
What is data dispersion in cloud computing?
Atsakymas
The distribution of data and copies across systems, regions, media, services, and providers. Replicas, caches, logs, snapshots, and backups all expand the control boundary.
61 kortelė
Klausimas
What does a cloud data flow describe?
Atsakymas
Where data originates, moves, is transformed, is stored, and exits. A useful flow also names trust boundaries, actors, purposes, and protections.
62 kortelė
Klausimas
How do object and volume storage differ?
Atsakymas
Object storage addresses data as objects with metadata; volume storage presents block-like storage to a host. Their access paths, sharing models, snapshots, and permission risks differ.
63 kortelė
Klausimas
How does ephemeral storage differ from long-term storage?
Atsakymas
Ephemeral storage is tied to a short-lived workload or execution; long-term storage is designed to persist independently. Ephemeral does not mean automatically sanitized.
64 kortelė
Klausimas
What is raw data storage?
Atsakymas
Storage of collected data before full cleaning, transformation, or enrichment. Its broad content and uncertain quality make isolation, discovery, provenance, and access control especially important.
65 kortelė
Klausimas
What makes a data-flow map useful for control design?
Atsakymas
It names sources, destinations, transformations, actors, purposes, trust boundaries, and protections. Update it when architecture or processing changes.
66 kortelė
Klausimas
What should decide whether data may move to another cloud region?
Atsakymas
Classification, purpose, residency and transfer rules, contract terms, threat model, and required controls. Region availability alone is not authorization.
67 kortelė
Klausimas
Which storage type fits immutable, widely shared blobs better than a mounted transactional filesystem?
Atsakymas
Object storage. Use volume storage when the workload needs block-style filesystem or database access semantics.
68 kortelė
Klausimas
A short-lived AI training node is terminated. Why can data risk remain?
Atsakymas
Ephemeral compute can leave snapshots, caches, logs, attached volumes, or provider-level remnants. Verify the full storage and key lifecycle, not only instance deletion.
69 kortelė
Klausimas
What control exposes unknown cloud data stores before they bypass policy?
Atsakymas
Continuous asset and data discovery across accounts, regions, services, and shadow paths. Findings need ownership and remediation, not just inventory.
70 kortelė
Klausimas
What security property does encryption primarily provide?
Atsakymas
Confidentiality against parties without the key. Integrity and authenticity require an appropriate authenticated mode or separate mechanism.
71 kortelė
Klausimas
What does tokenization do?
Atsakymas
Replaces sensitive data with a non-sensitive token whose mapping is protected separately. The token can preserve application format while reducing where original data appears.
72 kortelė
Klausimas
How do structured, semi-structured, and unstructured data differ?
Atsakymas
Structured data follows a fixed schema, semi-structured data carries flexible labels or structure, and unstructured data lacks a consistent field model. Discovery needs techniques suited to each form.
73 kortelė
Klausimas
What is data masking?
Atsakymas
A transformation that hides selected data while preserving a usable shape or view. Reversible or weak masking is not anonymization.
74 kortelė
Klausimas
What does Data Loss Prevention monitor or restrict?
Atsakymas
Sensitive-data movement or use across selected channels. DLP depends on discovery, classification, context, coverage, and tuned response.
75 kortelė
Klausimas
What security property does a cryptographic hash support?
Atsakymas
Integrity by detecting change. A plain hash does not hide the input, prove who created it, or prevent guessing of low-entropy values.
76 kortelė
Klausimas
What does Information Rights Management add beyond storage permissions?
Atsakymas
Persistent usage rules attached to protected content, such as view, print, copy, expiry, or revocation. Enforcement still depends on trusted identities, clients, and key services.
77 kortelė
Klausimas
Where should application secrets be kept?
Atsakymas
In a managed secret store with narrow access, audit logs, rotation, and short-lived retrieval. Source code, images, and general configuration files are poor secret stores.
78 kortelė
Klausimas
What is anonymization trying to achieve?
Atsakymas
Make data no longer reasonably linkable to an identifiable person. Re-identification risk must be assessed against auxiliary data and the release context.
79 kortelė
Klausimas
Why separate key-custodian duties from data administration?
Atsakymas
To reduce the chance that one person can both reach ciphertext and independently unlock it. Separation of duties should also cover recovery and emergency access.
80 kortelė
Klausimas
What control reduces dependence on provider-held encryption keys?
Atsakymas
Customer-controlled keys with independent policy and lifecycle management. The choice adds recovery, availability, rotation, and administrator risks that must be designed explicitly.
81 kortelė
Klausimas
How can tokenization reduce exposure in an application database?
Atsakymas
Store tokens in routine workflows and isolate the token vault or mapping service. Access to detokenization should be rarer and more tightly logged.
82 kortelė
Klausimas
How can a hash support evidence integrity?
Atsakymas
Record a strong hash at acquisition and verify it after each transfer or analysis step. Chain-of-custody records explain who handled the evidence and why.
83 kortelė
Klausimas
What is the safer source for non-production test data?
Atsakymas
Synthetic or appropriately transformed data that meets the test need without exposing production identities. Validate re-identification risk before release.
84 kortelė
Klausimas
What makes DLP enforcement practical instead of noisy?
Atsakymas
Accurate discovery and classification, contextual rules, staged response, tuned exceptions, and incident ownership. Blocking every pattern match can disrupt work without reducing real leakage.
85 kortelė
Klausimas
What enables IRM revocation after a file leaves its original repository?
Atsakymas
A trusted client that checks current rights and can no longer obtain the needed key or license. Offline copies and screenshots remain boundary cases.
86 kortelė
Klausimas
How should cloud data discovery handle false positives?
Atsakymas
Route uncertain matches for risk-based validation and tune detection with evidence. Silently discarding them hides coverage gaps; blocking them all creates operational failure.
87 kortelė
Klausimas
What keeps certificates trustworthy after issuance?
Atsakymas
Inventory, protected private keys, renewal, revocation, validation, and monitored expiry. Issuing a certificate is only the start of its lifecycle.
88 kortelė
Klausimas
What is envelope encryption?
Atsakymas
Encrypt data with a data-encryption key, then protect that key with a separate key-encryption key. Rotating or rewrapping the key-encryption key can protect existing data-encryption keys without re-encrypting payload data; replacing a data-encryption key may require payload re-encryption.
89 kortelė
Klausimas
What is data classification?
Atsakymas
Assignment of a sensitivity or business category that drives handling requirements. The category should reflect impact, law, contract, and business need.
90 kortelė
Klausimas
When is tokenization preferable to ordinary encryption?
Atsakymas
When workflows can use a surrogate while original values stay in a tightly isolated mapping service. Encryption is better when authorized systems must recover data directly with keys.
91 kortelė
Klausimas
Should a password be encrypted or hashed for verification?
Atsakymas
Hash it with a password-specific salted, slow derivation function. Reversible encryption creates unnecessary recovery of the original password.
92 kortelė
Klausimas
When is masking insufficient for a public dataset release?
Atsakymas
When remaining fields or external data can reasonably re-identify people. Public release needs a defensible anonymization assessment, not cosmetic redaction.
93 kortelė
Klausimas
Why should DLP not be the only control against cloud exfiltration?
Atsakymas
It sees only covered channels and recognized content. Least privilege, segmentation, egress control, encryption, monitoring, and response reduce gaps.
94 kortelė
Klausimas
When is IRM more useful than a repository access control list?
Atsakymas
When usage restrictions must follow a file beyond the original repository. If data never leaves a controlled service, native authorization may be simpler and stronger.
95 kortelė
Klausimas
Why perform discovery before broad classification enforcement?
Atsakymas
You need to know what data exists and where it lives before applying reliable labels and controls. Enforcement on an incomplete inventory leaves blind spots.
96 kortelė
Klausimas
What should trigger data reclassification?
Atsakymas
A change in content, use, law, contract, business impact, aggregation, or identifiability. Review should also occur on a defined schedule.
97 kortelė
Klausimas
Why rotate encryption keys?
Atsakymas
To limit exposure, meet policy, and replace keys after age, role, algorithm, or compromise changes. Rotation must preserve authorized access to older data until it is safely reprotected or retired.
98 kortelė
Klausimas
Who sets a cloud dataset's business classification?
Atsakymas
The accountable data owner. Automated tools can propose labels, but the owner resolves business context and exceptions.
99 kortelė
Klausimas
How does a data label differ from a classification policy?
Atsakymas
The label marks a specific asset; the policy defines what the category means and how it must be handled. Labels without enforcement are only metadata.
100 kortelė
Klausimas
What is a data steward responsible for?
Atsakymas
Day-to-day quality, definition, and policy consistency for data. A steward supports the owner but does not replace the owner's accountability.
101 kortelė
Klausimas
How do retention and archiving differ?
Atsakymas
Retention states how long data must or may be kept; archiving moves data into a managed long-term state. Archived data remains subject to access, integrity, discovery, and deletion rules.
102 kortelė
Klausimas
What does a data controller decide?
Atsakymas
The purposes and essential means of processing personal data. The exact legal definition depends on the applicable law.
103 kortelė
Klausimas
When should a derived dataset inherit its source classification?
Atsakymas
By default, until an accountable owner proves the transformation changed sensitivity. Aggregation can reduce or increase risk depending on content and linkability.
104 kortelė
Klausimas
How should classification labels affect cloud controls?
Atsakymas
Drive access, encryption, sharing, location, retention, monitoring, and deletion policy. Enforcement should follow the label across supported copies and transformations.
105 kortelė
Klausimas
What does a legal hold do?
Atsakymas
Suspends normal deletion for information relevant to a legal or regulatory matter. It preserves authorized access and evidence until the hold is released.
106 kortelė
Klausimas
What should a privacy role contribute to cloud data design?
Atsakymas
Purpose, minimization, transparency, rights, transfer, retention, and impact requirements. Security protects data, while privacy also asks whether processing should occur and under what conditions.
107 kortelė
Klausimas
What control turns a retention schedule into repeatable cloud behavior?
Atsakymas
Policy-driven lifecycle automation with holds, approvals, exceptions, and audit evidence. Automation must cover replicas and backups where the platform supports it.
108 kortelė
Klausimas
What is a data custodian responsible for?
Atsakymas
Implementing and operating the technical handling controls. Storage, backup, access, logging, and deletion are typical custody duties.
109 kortelė
Klausimas
Who should own the retention schedule?
Atsakymas
The records or information-governance function with legal and business input. Technology teams implement the approved schedule and evidence.
110 kortelė
Klausimas
What does a data processor do?
Atsakymas
Processes personal data for a controller under documented instructions. Using the data for its own new purpose may change the role and obligations.
111 kortelė
Klausimas
What proves a cloud deletion request was completed responsibly?
Atsakymas
Provider and customer evidence tied to the asset, method, scope, time, and remaining copies. A successful API response alone may not cover backups, replicas, or exported data.
112 kortelė
Klausimas
Which controls protect a long-term cloud archive?
Atsakymas
Restricted access, durable integrity checks, format and key preservation, redundancy, retention policy, and tested retrieval. An archive that cannot be read or trusted has failed its purpose.
113 kortelė
Klausimas
Who should approve a training dataset and model version for production?
Atsakymas
The accountable model or system owner using evidence from data, security, privacy, and validation roles. Approval must bind the exact versions and intended use.
114 kortelė
Klausimas
Which event fields most often establish accountability for cloud data access?
Atsakymas
Trusted identity, action, target, result, timestamp, source context, and relevant network or location data. Collect only attributes needed for the security, legal, and privacy purpose.
115 kortelė
Klausimas
Why synchronize clocks across cloud evidence sources?
Atsakymas
To correlate events into a defensible timeline. Record time source, zone, drift, and collection context when precision matters.
116 kortelė
Klausimas
Which risk is present when model outputs reveal features of sensitive training records?
Atsakymas
Model inversion or related privacy inference. Data minimization, privacy testing, output controls, and access limits reduce exposure.
117 kortelė
Klausimas
Who authorizes and scopes a legal hold?
Atsakymas
An authorized legal or records function. Cloud administrators implement it without deciding the legal scope themselves.
118 kortelė
Klausimas
What must AI dataset validation check besides file integrity?
Atsakymas
Source authority, consent or permitted use, representativeness, quality, labeling, poisoning indicators, and intended-use fit. A matching checksum only proves the bytes did not change after that checkpoint.
119 kortelė
Klausimas
Why is an archive not a substitute for a recovery backup?
Atsakymas
An archive optimizes long-term preservation and retrieval; a backup supports restoration after loss or corruption. One system can sometimes serve both only if it meets both control sets and tests.
120 kortelė
Klausimas
What protects AI dataset and model provenance?
Atsakymas
Versioned inventories, signed or hashed artifacts, controlled pipelines, approval records, and lineage from source to deployment. Bind validation results to the exact artifact versions.
121 kortelė
Klausimas
Which context should be omitted from a data event log?
Atsakymas
Data that is unnecessary for the defined security, accountability, or legal purpose. More logging can create privacy, cost, and breach risk without improving evidence.
122 kortelė
Klausimas
What happens when a valid legal hold conflicts with scheduled deletion?
Atsakymas
The authorized hold suspends deletion for the in-scope data. Keep access limited, document the exception, and resume policy when the hold is released.
123 kortelė
Klausimas
What adds non-repudiation evidence beyond a plain event log?
Atsakymas
Strong identity binding, protected timestamps, integrity controls, and controlled custody. The strength depends on the whole evidence process, not a single hash field.
124 kortelė
Klausimas
What privacy question does a membership-inference attack answer?
Atsakymas
Whether a particular record was likely part of a model's training data. Limit exposed confidence, query abuse, overfitting, and unnecessary sensitive training data.
125 kortelė
Klausimas
What is the clearest sign that training-data poisoning controls failed?
Atsakymas
Untrusted or manipulated examples changed model behavior or inserted a hidden trigger. Investigate provenance, pipeline access, validation, and the exact affected versions.
126 kortelė
Klausimas
What is the strongest first step when an AI use case asks for every available customer field?
Atsakymas
Reduce collection to data necessary for the approved purpose. Minimization lowers privacy, poisoning, access, retention, and breach exposure before technical controls are added.
127 kortelė
Klausimas
What is the cloud network team's primary security role?
Atsakymas
Implement approved segmentation, routing, edge protection, secure connectivity, and network telemetry. Application teams still define workload access needs.
128 kortelė
Klausimas
Which layers make up a cloud infrastructure trust stack?
Atsakymas
Physical facilities, network, compute, storage, virtualization, and management services. A workload inherits dependencies and failure modes from every layer beneath or beside it.
129 kortelė
Klausimas
How do the management plane and data plane differ?
Atsakymas
The management plane configures and governs resources; the data plane carries or processes workload traffic and data. Compromise of the management plane can change many data-plane controls at once.
130 kortelė
Klausimas
What is a trust boundary in cloud architecture?
Atsakymas
A point where identity, control, ownership, or assurance changes. Data crossing it needs an explicit policy, validation, and protected channel.
131 kortelė
Klausimas
Who owns a customer's cloud network and identity configuration?
Atsakymas
The customer for the configuration choices it controls. Provider defaults and guardrails help, but do not approve the customer's architecture.
132 kortelė
Klausimas
What logical control prevents one tenant from reaching another tenant's resources?
Atsakymas
Enforced tenant partitioning across identity, network, compute, storage, and management paths. Test the negative boundary, not only valid access.
133 kortelė
Klausimas
Why is the cloud management plane a high-value target?
Atsakymas
It can create, modify, expose, or destroy many resources through one privileged interface. Protect it more strongly than routine workload access.
134 kortelė
Klausimas
What limits lateral movement after one cloud workload is compromised?
Atsakymas
Microsegmentation with identity-aware, least-privilege communication policy. Monitor denied and unusual flows to find attempted spread.
135 kortelė
Klausimas
How does infrastructure as code improve control assurance?
Atsakymas
It makes configuration reviewable, repeatable, testable, and traceable. Protect the repository, pipeline, state, modules, and deployment identity.
136 kortelė
Klausimas
How should a team verify an infrastructure control still works?
Atsakymas
Test its intended outcome with current evidence and representative failure or attack conditions. Configuration presence alone does not prove effectiveness.
137 kortelė
Klausimas
What security boundary should virtualization create between tenants?
Atsakymas
Strong isolation of compute, memory, storage, network, and management operations. Shared hardware still creates side-channel, escape, and noisy-neighbor considerations.
138 kortelė
Klausimas
Which controls should protect cloud management-plane access?
Atsakymas
Phishing-resistant MFA, privileged access management, separate admin identities, conditional access, least privilege, and immutable logging. Restrict source networks where practical.
139 kortelė
Klausimas
How do type 1 and type 2 hypervisors differ?
Atsakymas
A type 1 hypervisor runs directly on hardware; a type 2 hypervisor runs on a host operating system. The extra host layer changes attack surface and operational use.
140 kortelė
Klausimas
Who secures the public cloud facility and physical host?
Atsakymas
The cloud provider. Customers still evaluate the provider's physical assurance and design their service around disclosed locations and failure domains.
141 kortelė
Klausimas
What protects a cloud AI training cluster from unrelated tenant traffic?
Atsakymas
Dedicated identities, microsegmentation, controlled data paths, hardened images, and monitored management access. Accelerator scheduling and storage paths belong in the boundary.
142 kortelė
Klausimas
When is packet capture useful in cloud infrastructure?
Atsakymas
When network-level detail is needed and collection is lawful, technically available, scoped, and protected. Flow logs may be safer and sufficient for many investigations.
143 kortelė
Klausimas
Which control protects detached cloud volumes and snapshots?
Atsakymas
Encryption with governed keys plus explicit access policy. Inventory and delete orphaned copies because detachment does not remove their data.
144 kortelė
Klausimas
Why correlate infrastructure logs across layers?
Atsakymas
To connect identity, management, network, host, and workload events into one incident path. Preserve original records and normalization context.
145 kortelė
Klausimas
What is a platform owner's responsibility for tenant isolation?
Atsakymas
Configure, patch, monitor, and test the shared platform so one workload cannot cross its authorized boundary. Consumers must use the platform's isolation features correctly.
146 kortelė
Klausimas
When should an AI training cluster use stronger isolation than ordinary batch compute?
Atsakymas
When valuable models, sensitive datasets, untrusted code, or high-cost accelerators raise confidentiality, integrity, or exhaustion risk. Match isolation to the workload threat model.
147 kortelė
Klausimas
What does an HSM protect in cloud infrastructure?
Atsakymas
Cryptographic keys and operations inside a hardened, policy-controlled boundary. An HSM does not decide whether the requesting workload is authorized unless surrounding policy enforces it.
148 kortelė
Klausimas
What is a failure domain?
Atsakymas
A set of components likely to fail together because they share a dependency. Regions, zones, racks, power feeds, control services, or software versions can define one.
149 kortelė
Klausimas
A volume is deleted but its snapshots remain. Is the data gone?
Atsakymas
No. The snapshots are separate retained copies. Apply inventory, retention, hold, encryption-key, and deletion policy to every snapshot and replica.
150 kortelė
Klausimas
How should a platform reduce virtualization escape risk?
Atsakymas
Minimize and patch the virtualization stack, isolate management interfaces, restrict device exposure, monitor anomalies, and contain workloads by risk. Stronger workload boundaries may be needed for hostile tenants.
151 kortelė
Klausimas
What is the first response to an internet-exposed cloud management endpoint?
Atsakymas
Remove unnecessary public reachability, then enforce strong identity and monitored privileged access. A hidden URL or uncommon port is not a control.
152 kortelė
Klausimas
What is the facilities team's role in a private cloud data center?
Atsakymas
Operate physical access, power, cooling, fire protection, and environmental monitoring. Security requirements should define evidence and escalation for those systems.
153 kortelė
Klausimas
Which site-location condition creates direct legal exposure for a cloud workload?
Atsakymas
The jurisdictions that can reach the facility, operator, customers, or data. Cost, hazards, utilities, connectivity, workforce, and physical threats require separate location analysis.
154 kortelė
Klausimas
How does diverse pathway connectivity improve resilience?
Atsakymas
It prevents one cable route, conduit, carrier handoff, or excavation from cutting every link. Verify physical diversity rather than relying on different circuit names.
155 kortelė
Klausimas
When does building a private data center make more sense than buying cloud capacity?
Atsakymas
When requirements for control, latency, sovereignty, specialized hardware, or long-term economics outweigh the build and operating burden. Compare full lifecycle cost and resilience, not purchase price alone.
156 kortelė
Klausimas
Which physical controls protect cloud hardware from unauthorized handling?
Atsakymas
Zoned access, least privilege, identity checks, surveillance, visitor controls, alarms, and custody records. The strength should match asset and data impact.
157 kortelė
Klausimas
What power design reduces a data center's single-point risk?
Atsakymas
Independent feeds, conditioned distribution, UPS capacity, generators, fuel plans, and tested transfer. Maintenance paths must preserve the intended redundancy.
158 kortelė
Klausimas
What should environmental monitoring detect in a data center?
Atsakymas
Temperature, humidity, airflow, water, smoke, power, and equipment conditions that threaten service. Alerts need thresholds, escalation, and tested response.
159 kortelė
Klausimas
How does resilience differ from simple redundancy?
Atsakymas
Redundancy adds alternatives; resilience keeps or restores acceptable service despite disruption. Redundant components can still share one failure domain or bad configuration.
160 kortelė
Klausimas
Which on-premises physical control remains a customer duty when workloads move to public cloud?
Atsakymas
Protection of customer-controlled offices, endpoints, network links, and any retained equipment. The provider's data-center controls do not secure the customer's physical environment.
161 kortelė
Klausimas
What are the core outputs of an infrastructure risk assessment?
Atsakymas
Prioritized risks tied to assets, threats, vulnerabilities, likelihood, impact, existing controls, and owners. The output should lead to treatment and follow-up.
162 kortelė
Klausimas
Who may accept residual infrastructure risk?
Atsakymas
The authorized business risk owner, not the engineer who found it. Acceptance should state scope, duration, rationale, and review trigger.
163 kortelė
Klausimas
How do a threat, vulnerability, and risk differ?
Atsakymas
A threat can cause harm, a vulnerability is a weakness it may exploit, and risk combines uncertain harm with business impact. A weakness without relevant exposure may be lower priority.
164 kortelė
Klausimas
What reveals that two supposedly redundant cloud systems share fate?
Atsakymas
They depend on the same control plane, account, region, identity service, network path, software defect, operator, or key. Model those dependencies before counting redundancy.
165 kortelė
Klausimas
What does a security control owner do?
Atsakymas
Ensures an assigned control is designed, implemented, evidenced, monitored, and corrected. The role may coordinate several technical operators.
166 kortelė
Klausimas
Which risk treatment options should a cloud team recognize?
Atsakymas
Avoid, mitigate, transfer or share, and accept. Treatment changes exposure or ownership; it does not erase accountability.
167 kortelė
Klausimas
What is a recovery service level?
Atsakymas
The minimum service capacity or functionality that must be restored, often stated as a percentage of normal service. RSL defines how much service must work; RTO sets the time limit, while RPO sets the maximum data-loss interval.
168 kortelė
Klausimas
What makes a machine image trustworthy for cloud deployment?
Atsakymas
Known provenance, minimal contents, current patches, signed or verified integrity, vulnerability results, and controlled promotion. Revalidate it when dependencies age.
169 kortelė
Klausimas
When do multiple availability zones materially improve resilience?
Atsakymas
When the service, data, network, identities, and operations can continue after one zone and its shared dependencies fail. Merely placing instances in two zones is not a tested design.
170 kortelė
Klausimas
What should determine the strength of an infrastructure security control?
Atsakymas
The asset impact, threat, vulnerability, exposure, legal duties, and risk tolerance. Use control frameworks as structured input, not as an automatic one-size baseline.
340 kortelių
CCSP 2026 Flashcards: August Exam Outline Review
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171 kortelė
Klausimas
Which layered controls improve availability against cloud DDoS?
Atsakymas
Provider edge absorption, rate controls, resilient scaling, caching, WAF or protocol filtering, and an exercised response plan. Scaling alone can turn attack traffic into cost exhaustion.
172 kortelė
Klausimas
A cloud contract shifts breach costs to a provider. Has the risk been removed?
Atsakymas
No. Financial risk may be transferred, while operational, legal, reputational, and customer harm can remain. Retained exposure still needs mitigation and acceptance.
173 kortelė
Klausimas
Why map dependencies across compute, storage, and network services?
Atsakymas
A resilient application can still fail when a shared supporting service fails. Dependency maps expose hidden single points, circular recovery steps, and shared fate.
174 kortelė
Klausimas
What does RPO constrain in an infrastructure recovery design?
Atsakymas
The maximum acceptable data-loss interval measured backward from disruption. It drives backup or replication frequency and consistency choices.
175 kortelė
Klausimas
What should trigger automated failover?
Atsakymas
Reliable health evidence that the primary cannot meet the service objective, with safeguards against split-brain and false triggers. Manual approval may remain appropriate for ambiguous high-impact cases.
176 kortelė
Klausimas
When is an IPS preferable to an IDS?
Atsakymas
When inline blocking is justified, tested, and safe for the traffic and availability requirements. Use detection-only when false positives or inline failure would create unacceptable impact.
177 kortelė
Klausimas
What makes residual infrastructure risk ready for acceptance?
Atsakymas
A clear scenario, affected assets, existing controls, likelihood and impact, owner, duration, alternatives, and review trigger. Vague acceptance is not governance.
178 kortelė
Klausimas
What makes a cloud backup resistant to account compromise?
Atsakymas
Separate administration, immutable or offline retention, encryption, protected deletion, and tested restore. Keep recovery credentials outside the routine production trust path.
179 kortelė
Klausimas
What does a BC/DR coordinator own during cloud recovery planning?
Atsakymas
The cross-team plan, exercises, dependencies, contacts, evidence, and follow-up. Service owners still set business priorities and targets.
180 kortelė
Klausimas
Which recovery design supports a near-zero RPO?
Atsakymas
Synchronous or otherwise strongly consistent replication across independent failure domains, if latency and shared-fate limits are acceptable. Backups still protect against corruption and deletion.
181 kortelė
Klausimas
Which overlooked dependency can stop users from reaching replicated application servers after failover?
Atsakymas
The identity service. Recovery planning should also cover DNS, keys, secrets, routes, data stores, quotas, and external services.
182 kortelė
Klausimas
Why test restore separately from backup completion?
Atsakymas
A completed backup may be corrupt, incomplete, inaccessible, or too slow for the target. Restore testing proves usability and measures recovery performance.
183 kortelė
Klausimas
Why plan failback before declaring a DR design complete?
Atsakymas
Returning to the preferred environment can create another outage, conflict, or data loss. Define authority, synchronization, validation, rollback, and communication.
184 kortelė
Klausimas
Which design choice most directly supports a short RTO?
Atsakymas
Pre-provisioned or rapidly deployable recovery capacity with automated, tested orchestration. Data, identities, network, dependencies, and operators must be ready too.
185 kortelė
Klausimas
What should application-security awareness change in a cloud team?
Atsakymas
Daily design and delivery decisions, not just annual quiz results. Use role-specific OWASP, ASVS, SANS Top 25, and LLM-risk examples as practical boundaries, then reinforce them with real defects.
186 kortelė
Klausimas
What makes an SDLC a secure SDLC?
Atsakymas
Security requirements, design analysis, implementation controls, verification, release evidence, maintenance, and retirement are built into the lifecycle. A final penetration test alone is not a lifecycle.
187 kortelė
Klausimas
How do functional and non-functional security requirements differ?
Atsakymas
Functional requirements specify security behavior; non-functional requirements set qualities such as availability, performance, resilience, or assurance. Both need measurable acceptance criteria.
188 kortelė
Klausimas
Who turns business needs into testable application security requirements?
Atsakymas
The product or business owner with security, privacy, legal, and engineering input. Requirements need an accountable owner and acceptance evidence.
189 kortelė
Klausimas
How should a security requirement remain visible through delivery?
Atsakymas
Trace it to design decisions, code or configuration, tests, approval, and operating evidence. Untraceable requirements are easy to drop during change.
190 kortelė
Klausimas
What is the purpose of threat modeling?
Atsakymas
Identify likely abuse paths and design mitigations before or during development. Keep the model tied to assets, trust boundaries, architecture changes, and evidence.
191 kortelė
Klausimas
What makes developer security training actionable?
Atsakymas
Role-specific examples, secure alternatives, practice in the delivery toolchain, and feedback from real defects. Refresh it as platforms and threats change.
192 kortelė
Klausimas
Should agile delivery remove formal security gates?
Atsakymas
No. It should make them smaller, earlier, automated where reliable, and tied to risk. High-impact changes can still require independent approval.
193 kortelė
Klausimas
Which cloud-specific application risks need explicit SDLC decisions before coding?
Atsakymas
Shared-technology exposure, provider insiders, limited visibility or control, and legal or jurisdiction boundaries. Record the provider boundary, evidence, data location, isolation, and compensating controls.
194 kortelė
Klausimas
How do federation and SSO differ?
Atsakymas
Federation establishes trust across identity domains; SSO lets a user authenticate once for multiple services. Federation can enable SSO, but the concepts are not identical.
195 kortelė
Klausimas
What is a developer's responsibility in secure cloud delivery?
Atsakymas
Use approved patterns, validate inputs and outputs, protect secrets, handle errors safely, review dependencies, and fix findings. Security tools support that judgment rather than replace it.
196 kortelė
Klausimas
What should a peer security reviewer verify?
Atsakymas
That the change preserves requirements, trust boundaries, authorization, data handling, failure behavior, and evidence. Review the actual diff and deployment effect, not only style.
197 kortelė
Klausimas
What is the application security architect accountable for?
Atsakymas
Security patterns, trust boundaries, threat decisions, control integration, and documented exceptions. Teams share implementation, but architecture needs coherent ownership.
198 kortelė
Klausimas
Which threat categories does STRIDE prompt a team to examine?
Atsakymas
Spoofing, tampering, repudiation, information disclosure, denial of service, and elevation of privilege. It is a coverage aid, not a risk score.
199 kortelė
Klausimas
What secure-coding rule most directly prevents broken object authorization?
Atsakymas
Check the current subject's permission for the specific object on every request. ASVS or SAFECode guidance can structure assurance, but hiding identifiers or checking only authentication is insufficient.
200 kortelė
Klausimas
What should a secret-scanning gate do when it finds a real credential?
Atsakymas
Block exposure, revoke or rotate the credential, remove it from reachable history, and investigate use. Deleting the latest line does not invalidate copied history.
201 kortelė
Klausimas
How does protected version control support software assurance?
Atsakymas
It creates tamper-evident, access-controlled history for reviewed code and configuration changes. Protect references from unauthorized rewrite, retain audit logs, control bypass, and bind signed artifacts to approved releases; content-addressed commits alone do not make branch history immutable.
202 kortelė
Klausimas
Which threat-model method is the simplest checklist for threat categories at trust boundaries?
Atsakymas
STRIDE. Use a process-centered method when business impact, attacker paths, and staged analysis need deeper treatment.
203 kortelė
Klausimas
What is an abuse case?
Atsakymas
A description of how an actor could misuse a feature or violate a security goal. It turns attacker intent into testable defensive behavior.
204 kortelė
Klausimas
Why should a team avoid treating DREAD scores as objective truth?
Atsakymas
Its ratings are judgment-based and can create false precision. Document evidence, assumptions, impact, and uncertainty instead of relying on one number.
205 kortelė
Klausimas
How do SAST and DAST differ?
Atsakymas
SAST examines code or compiled artifacts without running the full application; DAST probes a running application from the outside. They find different classes of weakness.
206 kortelė
Klausimas
What does Software Composition Analysis examine?
Atsakymas
Third-party components, versions, licenses, and known vulnerability or policy data. It does not prove that a dependency is safe in context or detect every malicious package.
207 kortelė
Klausimas
When should a cloud application's threat model be updated?
Atsakymas
When trust boundaries, data, identities, dependencies, deployment, features, or threats materially change. Periodic review catches slow drift.
208 kortelė
Klausimas
How do black-box and white-box security testing differ?
Atsakymas
Black-box testing uses external behavior with little internal knowledge; white-box testing uses code, design, or configuration knowledge. Gray-box testing combines partial knowledge with external interaction.
209 kortelė
Klausimas
What should a CI/CD security gate block?
Atsakymas
A defined, evidence-based release condition such as an exposed secret, failed critical control, unapproved artifact, or unacceptable vulnerability. Keep exceptions explicit, owned, and time-bounded.
210 kortelė
Klausimas
When is PASTA or ATASM more useful than a short threat checklist?
Atsakymas
When the team needs a structured path from business objectives and architecture to attacker behavior, attack surfaces, and mitigations. Match method depth to decision risk.
211 kortelė
Klausimas
Where does SAST provide the earliest useful feedback?
Atsakymas
During coding and pull-request review, before deployment. Tune rules, confirm reachability and context, and fix root causes rather than chasing raw counts.
212 kortelė
Klausimas
When is IAST worth adding to a cloud test pipeline?
Atsakymas
When representative automated tests exist and runtime path-to-code insight will improve triage. Without exercised paths, instrumentation has little to observe.
213 kortelė
Klausimas
How should an application handle LLM output before passing it to a browser, shell, database, or tool?
Atsakymas
Treat it as untrusted data and validate, encode, constrain, or approve it for the destination. Model fluency is not a security guarantee.
214 kortelė
Klausimas
What should an abuse-case test assert for a sensitive workflow?
Atsakymas
The application safely rejects or contains a realistic misuse path and leaves useful evidence. Test rate, sequence, privilege, data, and failure-state abuse where relevant.
215 kortelė
Klausimas
What environment makes DAST results most useful?
Atsakymas
A representative running deployment with safe test data, reachable paths, and observable results. Production testing needs explicit authorization and safeguards.
216 kortelė
Klausimas
Who owns risk from a third-party software component?
Atsakymas
The organization that chooses and operates it. The supplier supplies evidence and remediation, but outsourcing the component does not outsource customer accountability.
217 kortelė
Klausimas
How do an SBOM and SCA work together?
Atsakymas
SCA identifies component and policy findings; an SBOM records the released component inventory. Bind both to the exact artifact and update risk when new information appears.
218 kortelė
Klausimas
What does artifact signing protect in a software supply chain?
Atsakymas
Integrity and authenticated provenance of the signed artifact. Verification policy must also trust the signer, build path, and release authorization.
219 kortelė
Klausimas
What makes open-source software validated for a cloud application?
Atsakymas
Its source, release, integrity, dependencies, license, maintenance, vulnerabilities, and intended use have been assessed. Open code is inspectable, not automatically safe.
220 kortelė
Klausimas
Which cloud application control validates XML message structure before processing?
Atsakymas
An XML firewall. A WAF filters web traffic, an API gateway applies API-facing policy, DAM monitors database activity, and a load balancer distributes traffic.
221 kortelė
Klausimas
What authorization check belongs behind every sensitive API operation?
Atsakymas
A server-side decision for the current identity, action, object, tenant, and context. Gateway authentication alone cannot decide application-level ownership.
222 kortelė
Klausimas
How should an API treat untrusted input?
Atsakymas
Validate type, structure, size, range, encoding, and allowed semantics before use. Reject unexpected fields where ambiguity or mass assignment creates risk.
223 kortelė
Klausimas
What is an Identity Provider responsible for in federation?
Atsakymas
Authenticating subjects and issuing trustworthy identity assertions under agreed policy. The relying application still authorizes each requested action.
224 kortelė
Klausimas
What does sandboxing add to cloud application security?
Atsakymas
A constrained execution boundary for untrusted or risky code and content. Restrict identity, network, files, secrets, time, and compute outside the sandbox too.
225 kortelė
Klausimas
What should block adoption of a third-party software component?
Atsakymas
Unacceptable provenance, integrity, vulnerability, maintenance, license, access, or exit risk. Popularity and a clean scan do not settle supplier risk.
226 kortelė
Klausimas
Which test perspective should verify hidden authorization logic?
Atsakymas
White-box review and testing, supported by black-box attempts to cross the boundary. Internal knowledge finds code paths; external tests confirm observable enforcement.
227 kortelė
Klausimas
Which practice verifies that a cloud release consistently meets defined quality and security criteria?
Atsakymas
Quality Assurance (QA). It plans and tracks repeatable reviews, tests, acceptance evidence, defect handling, and process improvement across delivery.
228 kortelė
Klausimas
Which IAM controls reduce takeover of a federated cloud account?
Atsakymas
Strong MFA, trusted federation configuration, short sessions, conditional access, lifecycle automation, and monitored privilege. Secure both the IdP and relying service.
229 kortelė
Klausimas
What is the safest response when retrieved content tells an LLM to ignore system rules?
Atsakymas
Treat the instruction as untrusted data, preserve higher-priority policy, and prevent unauthorized tool or data access. Input filtering alone cannot eliminate prompt injection.
230 kortelė
Klausimas
How should an LLM application reduce sensitive information disclosure?
Atsakymas
Minimize prompt and training data, enforce retrieval authorization, redact where justified, constrain outputs, and test leakage. A system prompt telling the model to keep secrets is not sufficient.
231 kortelė
Klausimas
A model repository account is compromised and a backdoored model is published. Which risks overlap?
Atsakymas
Supply-chain compromise and data or model poisoning. Pin trusted versions, verify provenance and signatures, scan safely, validate behavior, and control promotion.
232 kortelė
Klausimas
What identity should one microservice use to call another?
Atsakymas
A distinct, short-lived workload identity with least-privilege authorization. Avoid sharing broad static credentials across services.
233 kortelė
Klausimas
How should an agentic LLM be constrained before it can delete cloud resources?
Atsakymas
Give it minimal scoped tools, validate arguments, require approval for destructive actions, enforce budgets, and log every decision and result. Capability should match the smallest authorized task.
234 kortelė
Klausimas
Should a system prompt be treated as a secret control boundary?
Atsakymas
No. Design as if instructions may be exposed. Keep credentials and authorization outside the prompt, minimize sensitive details, and enforce policy in trusted code.
235 kortelė
Klausimas
What is the main risk of weak authorization in a shared vector store?
Atsakymas
Retrieval can cross tenant or user boundaries and expose embeddings, documents, or poisoned context. Partition, authorize, validate provenance, and monitor ingestion and queries.
236 kortelė
Klausimas
When does a CASB add value beside an IdP?
Atsakymas
When the organization needs visibility or policy over cloud-service use, data movement, sessions, or unmanaged access beyond authentication. The IdP establishes identity; the CASB governs selected cloud interactions.
237 kortelė
Klausimas
How should a high-impact workflow use an LLM answer that may be plausible but false?
Atsakymas
Verify it against authoritative data or require qualified human review before action. Communicate uncertainty and preserve source evidence.
238 kortelė
Klausimas
Which controls address unbounded LLM consumption?
Atsakymas
Per-user and per-task quotas, rate limits, token and tool budgets, timeouts, concurrency limits, anomaly alerts, and safe cancellation. Monitor financial as well as availability impact.
239 kortelė
Klausimas
How do an HSM and a TPM differ?
Atsakymas
An HSM protects shared or service cryptographic operations; a TPM anchors trust to one platform. Both protect keys, but their scope and use cases differ.
240 kortelė
Klausimas
What does secure by default mean for cloud infrastructure?
Atsakymas
A new resource starts in the least exposed, least privileged, approved state. Users must make an explicit, reviewed choice to widen access or capability.
241 kortelė
Klausimas
Why do virtual CPU, memory, storage, and network settings have security impact?
Atsakymas
They define resource exposure, isolation, exhaustion limits, and device access. Overbroad virtual hardware can create attack paths or noisy-neighbor risk.
242 kortelė
Klausimas
Which hypervisor type is usually preferred for production cloud hosts?
Atsakymas
A type 1 hypervisor because it removes the general-purpose host OS layer. The actual choice still depends on assurance, patching, management, and workload needs.
243 kortelė
Klausimas
How can TPM-backed measured boot support cloud host assurance?
Atsakymas
Measurements anchor boot components to hardware so an attestation service can compare them with approved state. The decision still depends on trusted reference values and response policy.
244 kortelė
Klausimas
How should guest OS virtualization tools be installed and maintained?
Atsakymas
Use provider-authorized packages, enable only needed features, match supported versions, patch promptly, and monitor their privilege. Remove stale tools that widen the host-to-guest boundary.
245 kortelė
Klausimas
What is cloud platform operations responsible for after secure build?
Atsakymas
Maintaining approved configuration, availability, patching, monitoring, backup, access, and evidence. Operations should feed recurring defects back into design.
246 kortelė
Klausimas
What does a privileged access administrator control?
Atsakymas
The issuance, elevation, monitoring, review, and revocation of administrative access. Separate the access-control role from routine use where practical.
247 kortelė
Klausimas
What is the safer pattern for remote SSH administration?
Atsakymas
Short-lived identity-based access through a controlled path with host verification, least privilege, session logging, and no shared keys. Disable direct root login.
248 kortelė
Klausimas
When should a cloud workload require platform attestation?
Atsakymas
When access depends on proof that the host or confidential environment is in an approved measured state. Define what is measured, who verifies it, and what failure does.
249 kortelė
Klausimas
Which protocol adds origin authentication and integrity to DNS data?
Atsakymas
DNSSEC. TLS protects a transport session, a VPN protects traffic across an untrusted boundary, and DHCP safeguards prevent rogue address or configuration assignment.
250 kortelė
Klausimas
What should enforce separation between cloud network zones?
Atsakymas
Routing and firewall or security-group policy tied to explicit allowed flows. VLANs can organize segments but do not enforce policy by themselves.
251 kortelė
Klausimas
How do IDS and IPS differ operationally?
Atsakymas
An IDS alerts on suspected activity; an IPS sits inline and can block it. Inline prevention adds availability and false-positive risk.
252 kortelė
Klausimas
What reduces RDP exposure in a cloud environment?
Atsakymas
Remove direct internet access, require a hardened gateway or private path, strong MFA, current patches, device checks, and session monitoring. Limit clipboard and drive redirection by need.
253 kortelė
Klausimas
What makes a honeypot safe enough to operate?
Atsakymas
Isolation, no production trust, controlled data, monitored egress, legal approval, and an incident plan. It should observe attackers without becoming their launch point.
254 kortelė
Klausimas
How do high availability and backup differ?
Atsakymas
High availability keeps service running through component failure; backup restores data or state after loss or corruption. One does not replace the other.
255 kortelė
Klausimas
How should firewall, IDS, and IPS controls be layered?
Atsakymas
Firewalls constrain allowed paths, IDS detects suspicious activity, and IPS may block selected attacks inline. Central telemetry and tuned ownership make the layers useful.
256 kortelė
Klausimas
When is a cloud security group insufficient as the only network control?
Atsakymas
When application-aware filtering, centralized inspection, advanced threat detection, or cross-environment policy is required. Keep security groups as workload-level least-privilege boundaries.
257 kortelė
Klausimas
How should management-plane tools be installed?
Atsakymas
From verified sources through a controlled, minimal, hardened build with separate privileged access and logging. Remove sample accounts, unused plugins, and default exposure.
258 kortelė
Klausimas
What is patch management?
Atsakymas
A controlled lifecycle for identifying, prioritizing, testing, deploying, verifying, and documenting security and reliability updates. Asset inventory and exception ownership are prerequisites.
259 kortelė
Klausimas
How do performance and capacity monitoring differ?
Atsakymas
Performance monitoring measures current service behavior; capacity monitoring forecasts whether resources can meet future demand. Both need business thresholds and trends.
260 kortelė
Klausimas
How do change, release, and deployment management differ?
Atsakymas
Change management authorizes and controls modification; release management packages approved capability; deployment management moves it into an environment. One workflow may integrate all three without erasing their goals.
261 kortelė
Klausimas
What should decide whether an IPS blocks automatically?
Atsakymas
Detection confidence, asset criticality, attack impact, false-positive cost, bypass behavior, and rollback. Start with observation when evidence is weak.
262 kortelė
Klausimas
Who owns a patch exception?
Atsakymas
The authorized system or risk owner, with technical evidence from operations and security. The exception needs compensating controls, expiry, and review.
263 kortelė
Klausimas
What does a capacity manager protect?
Atsakymas
The service's ability to meet current and forecast demand within cost and resilience constraints. The role tracks trends, thresholds, quotas, and scaling lead time.
264 kortelė
Klausimas
What is the change manager's security role?
Atsakymas
Ensure risk, testing, authorization, scheduling, rollback, and communication are proportionate to the change. Emergency changes still need retrospective evidence.
265 kortelė
Klausimas
What should a backup-and-restore control verify for guest systems?
Atsakymas
Required data and configuration are captured, protected, retained, and restored within targets. Include application consistency, keys, dependencies, and documented restore order.
266 kortelė
Klausimas
Which management process keeps a cloud service able to meet its agreed uptime and reliability targets?
Atsakymas
Availability management. It analyzes failure patterns, resilience, maintainability, and recovery so the service can meet those targets.
267 kortelė
Klausimas
What improves patch prioritization beyond a severity score?
Atsakymas
Exploitability, exposure, asset importance, compensating controls, dependency, and business impact. Verify remediation and track unsupported assets separately.
268 kortelė
Klausimas
What turns performance and capacity alerts into an availability control?
Atsakymas
Thresholds tied to service objectives, trend analysis, ownership, safe scaling, and tested response. Alert volume without action is not capacity management.
269 kortelė
Klausimas
What should a configuration-management system record?
Atsakymas
Approved items, owners, versions, relationships, baselines, changes, and current state. Cloud discovery should reconcile actual resources with declared configuration.
270 kortelė
Klausimas
Why place a cluster host into maintenance mode?
Atsakymas
To drain or protect workloads before planned work while preserving cluster policy. Verify capacity, placement constraints, and stateful-service behavior first.
271 kortelė
Klausimas
Which management process agrees, monitors, and reviews measurable service targets with customers?
Atsakymas
Service-level management. It turns business needs into agreed service objectives, tracks results, and drives action when performance misses them.
272 kortelė
Klausimas
Which hardware signals should cloud facilities monitor?
Atsakymas
Disk health, CPU and memory errors, fan and temperature state, power, and vendor fault telemetry. Correlate physical signals with host and workload impact.
273 kortelė
Klausimas
How should an OS hardening baseline be maintained?
Atsakymas
Version it, test it, measure compliance, remediate drift, record exceptions, and update it for new threats and platform changes. Apply separate profiles to distinct workloads.
274 kortelė
Klausimas
How do incident management and problem management differ?
Atsakymas
Incident management restores service and limits harm; problem management finds and removes underlying causes. The same event can open both tracks.
275 kortelė
Klausimas
Which management process coordinates security risk and controls across cloud service operation?
Atsakymas
Information security management. It aligns policy, risk treatment, control operation, evidence, incidents, and improvement with the service-management system.
276 kortelė
Klausimas
Which management process turns recurring service-control gaps into measured improvements?
Atsakymas
Continual service improvement management. It prioritizes opportunities, defines a measurable target and owner, implements change, and verifies the outcome.
277 kortelė
Klausimas
How should operations choose among NIST, ISO, COBIT, CIS Controls, COSO, ITIL, or ISO/IEC 20000-1?
Atsakymas
Map the applicable framework or standard to the organization's legal duties, risks, service goals, and evidence needs. The names are not interchangeable, and adoption alone does not prove control effectiveness.
278 kortelė
Klausimas
A service is restored after repeated crashes. Which process continues the root-cause work?
Atsakymas
Problem management. Incident management can close after stable restoration while the underlying defect, workaround, and prevention remain tracked.
279 kortelė
Klausimas
Which management process owns tested arrangements for sustaining or restoring critical services after severe disruption?
Atsakymas
Continuity management. Incident management handles the current event, while availability management focuses on meeting service uptime and reliability targets.
280 kortelė
Klausimas
What does a cloud forensic lead decide?
Atsakymas
The lawful collection strategy, volatile-data priorities, tools, provider coordination, preservation, and analysis plan. The lead should understand cloud-specific evidence limits.
281 kortelė
Klausimas
What does chain of custody record?
Atsakymas
Who collected, handled, transferred, stored, analyzed, and disposed of evidence, when and why. Integrity checks support the record but do not replace it.
282 kortelė
Klausimas
What does an incident commander own?
Atsakymas
Priorities, roles, decisions, coordination, cadence, and safe handoffs during an incident. Technical responders investigate and act within that structure.
283 kortelė
Klausimas
What does the incident communications lead control?
Atsakymas
Approved messages, audiences, channels, timing, records, and coordination with legal and leadership. Technical certainty and disclosure obligations may change during the event.
284 kortelė
Klausimas
How do a SOC, SIEM, and SOAR relate?
Atsakymas
A SOC is the operating function, a SIEM centralizes and analyzes security events, and SOAR coordinates automated workflows. People, process, authority, and evidence connect the tools.
285 kortelė
Klausimas
What is an evidence custodian responsible for?
Atsakymas
Controlled storage, access, transfer, integrity verification, retention, and chain-of-custody records. The custodian preserves evidence without altering its meaning.
286 kortelė
Klausimas
How should a SOC use threat intelligence?
Atsakymas
Map relevant, timely indicators and adversary behavior to assets, detections, hunts, and decisions. Expire stale indicators and separate confidence from fact.
287 kortelė
Klausimas
How should AI-assisted security monitoring be governed?
Atsakymas
Validate data and models, measure errors and drift, limit action authority, log reasoning inputs and outcomes, and keep human review for consequential cases. Compare against a safe manual path.
288 kortelė
Klausimas
When is a cloud snapshot suitable forensic evidence?
Atsakymas
When collection is authorized, scope and timing are documented, integrity is protected, and the snapshot preserves relevant state. It may omit memory, external services, or rapidly changing logs.
289 kortelė
Klausimas
Who decides whether a regulator must be notified during a cloud incident?
Atsakymas
The authorized legal or compliance owner under the incident plan. Vendor and communications owners coordinate channels; engineers supply verified facts.
290 kortelė
Klausimas
What should a forensic plan obtain from the cloud provider before an incident?
Atsakymas
Available logs and APIs, retention, time sources, support contacts, legal process, evidence formats, isolation options, and responsibility boundaries. Confirm access with an exercise.
291 kortelė
Klausimas
How should vulnerability assessment and penetration testing work together?
Atsakymas
Assessment finds and prioritizes likely weaknesses broadly; authorized penetration testing demonstrates selected exploit paths and impact. Both require scoped remediation and retest.
292 kortelė
Klausimas
How should a SIEM protect cloud log value?
Atsakymas
Normalize without losing source evidence, control access, preserve time and integrity, correlate identities and assets, tune detections, and retain by purpose. Monitor collection gaps.
293 kortelė
Klausimas
What should SOAR do when a playbook's evidence is incomplete?
Atsakymas
Pause or take only a safe reversible step, preserve context, and escalate to an authorized human. Do not let automation convert uncertainty into broad containment damage.
294 kortelė
Klausimas
When should incident communication wait?
Atsakymas
Only when authorized coordination is needed to verify facts, protect response, or meet a defined legal strategy. Do not delay a mandatory notice past its trigger or deadline.
295 kortelė
Klausimas
When is penetration testing more useful than another vulnerability scan?
Atsakymas
When the organization needs authorized evidence that selected weaknesses can combine into a meaningful attack path. Scanning remains better for broad, repeatable coverage.
296 kortelė
Klausimas
Which evidence should be collected first from a running cloud workload?
Atsakymas
The most volatile, relevant evidence that will disappear earliest, if collection is authorized and safe. Balance volatility against service impact and contamination risk.
297 kortelė
Klausimas
Why can cloud data be subject to more than one jurisdiction?
Atsakymas
Customers, providers, processing, storage, people, contracts, and affected individuals may sit in different places. Location and legal reach are related but not identical.
298 kortelė
Klausimas
Why are privacy roles contextual rather than permanent labels?
Atsakymas
An organization can be controller for one processing purpose and processor for another. Determine the role from actual decisions and instructions, not the company type.
299 kortelė
Klausimas
What should legal counsel contribute to cloud design?
Atsakymas
Interpret applicable law, privilege, contracts, disputes, preservation, disclosure, and legal risk. Counsel advises; accountable business owners still decide within authority.
300 kortelė
Klausimas
What is eDiscovery?
Atsakymas
The identification, preservation, collection, processing, review, and production of electronically stored information for a legal matter. Cloud scale and provider control affect each step.
301 kortelė
Klausimas
How do contractual and regulated private data differ?
Atsakymas
Contractual duties come from agreed terms; regulated duties come from applicable law. The same data can be subject to both, and the stricter combined obligations may govern.
302 kortelė
Klausimas
What is the controller's contract duty toward a cloud processor?
Atsakymas
Give documented instructions, choose and oversee a capable processor, and define required privacy and security terms. Applicable law may add specific clauses and audit duties.
303 kortelė
Klausimas
What is a Privacy Impact Assessment?
Atsakymas
A structured evaluation of how planned processing affects people and how privacy risk will be handled. Perform it early enough to change the design.
304 kortelė
Klausimas
What is an ISMS?
Atsakymas
A managed system of policies, risk processes, controls, evidence, review, and continual improvement for information security. It is broader than a control checklist or toolset.
305 kortelė
Klausimas
What does a contract's choice-of-law clause do?
Atsakymas
Names the law intended to govern the contract. It does not automatically override mandatory laws or every court's jurisdiction.
306 kortelė
Klausimas
What makes a legal hold operationally defensible in cloud systems?
Atsakymas
Authorized scope, prompt preservation, deletion suspension, controlled collection, access logging, periodic review, and documented release. Test whether provider features cover all copies.
307 kortelė
Klausimas
Does calling a field PII or PHI settle every privacy obligation?
Atsakymas
No. Applicability depends on the data, person, entity, purpose, context, and governing law or contract. Classify with qualified privacy and legal input.
308 kortelė
Klausimas
Which design control reduces privacy risk before consent screens and notices?
Atsakymas
Data minimization tied to a specific approved purpose. Collecting less reduces exposure, rights handling, retention, and breach impact.
309 kortelė
Klausimas
What is a processor's core duty toward controller data?
Atsakymas
Process it only under authorized instructions and required legal obligations, while applying agreed controls and assistance. Subprocessors need governed approval and flow-down terms.
310 kortelė
Klausimas
What control reveals cross-border cloud data processing before it becomes a compliance surprise?
Atsakymas
A maintained data and subprocessors map tied to locations, purposes, roles, transfers, and safeguards. Reconcile contracts with actual telemetry and provider disclosures.
311 kortelė
Klausimas
How do internal and external audits differ?
Atsakymas
Internal audit provides independent assurance inside the organization; external audit is performed by an outside party for a defined objective. Both require scope, criteria, evidence, and independence.
312 kortelė
Klausimas
When should a PIA be reopened?
Atsakymas
When purpose, data, people, model, provider, location, sharing, retention, or risk materially changes. A one-time assessment becomes stale as processing evolves.
313 kortelė
Klausimas
How should a cloud team use GDPR, PIPEDA, India's DPDP Act, FERPA, HIPAA, ISO/IEC 27018, or GAPP?
Atsakymas
First determine which laws apply, then map their obligations and any selected framework guidance to actual processing and controls. A named standard or provider region is not automatic compliance.
314 kortelė
Klausimas
Two countries impose conflicting duties on the same cloud records. What is the first move?
Atsakymas
Escalate to qualified counsel with the exact data, actors, locations, contracts, orders, and timelines. Preserve evidence and avoid an irreversible technical action based on guesswork.
315 kortelė
Klausimas
What protects an internal auditor's independence?
Atsakymas
Authority to assess outside the operation being audited, objective reporting, and freedom from designing or owning the control under review. Internal employment does not prevent independence if governance is sound.
316 kortelė
Klausimas
What does a privacy officer oversee?
Atsakymas
Privacy governance, impact assessment, rights, transparency, lawful processing, transfers, incidents, and regulator engagement. The exact statutory role varies by jurisdiction.
317 kortelė
Klausimas
What do SOC, SSAE, and ISAE labels tell an assurance-report reader?
Atsakymas
SOC identifies a service-organization report family, while SSAE and ISAE identify attestation standards used for defined engagements. The exact report type, criteria, period, scope, exceptions, and subservices determine its value.
318 kortelė
Klausimas
What must an audit plan define before cloud audit fieldwork starts?
Atsakymas
The objective, criteria, scope, responsibilities, schedule, methods, evidence access, and reporting path. The plan should also name constraints and follow-up ownership.
319 kortelė
Klausimas
How do risk appetite and risk tolerance differ?
Atsakymas
Risk appetite expresses the amount and type of risk an organization is willing to pursue or retain; tolerance sets acceptable variation around objectives. Both guide escalation and treatment.
320 kortelė
Klausimas
What does an enterprise risk owner decide?
Atsakymas
Whether to avoid, mitigate, transfer or share, or accept a documented risk within authority. The owner tracks residual exposure and review triggers.
321 kortelė
Klausimas
How should risk metrics be designed?
Atsakymas
Tie each metric to a decision, owner, threshold, reliable source, trend, and response. Separate leading indicators from lagging outcomes and guard against easy gaming.
322 kortelė
Klausimas
What is gap analysis?
Atsakymas
Comparison of current control state with a required or target state. Each gap needs impact, owner, treatment, evidence, and due date.
323 kortelė
Klausimas
What makes cloud audit evidence reliable?
Atsakymas
Clear criteria, complete scope, trustworthy source, protected integrity, accurate time, repeatable collection, and accountable ownership. Screenshots without context are weak evidence.
324 kortelė
Klausimas
Why does a distributed cloud model complicate audit scope?
Atsakymas
Controls, evidence, people, providers, and data span locations and jurisdictions with different access and retention limits. Define boundaries and shared responsibilities before fieldwork.
325 kortelė
Klausimas
Can a clean SOC report prove compliance with a customer's specialized regulation?
Atsakymas
No. Map the report's criteria, period, scope, exceptions, subservices, and customer controls to the specific requirement. NERC CIP, HIPAA, HITECH, PCI, or another regime may need additional evidence.
326 kortelė
Klausimas
What should a customer assess in a cloud provider's risk-management program?
Atsakymas
Whether its policies, methods, controls, risk profile, and appetite fit the customer's requirements and exposure. Review evidence before selection and when material risk changes.
327 kortelė
Klausimas
What is a data owner's enterprise-risk role?
Atsakymas
Set business value, classification, allowed use, access, retention, and acceptable risk for the data. Custodians implement the resulting controls.
328 kortelė
Klausimas
What AI evidence supports accountability and explainability without promising perfect interpretation?
Atsakymas
Document intended use, data and model versions, decision roles, testing, limitations, human oversight, outputs, changes, and incident history. Match explanation depth to affected people and legal duties.
329 kortelė
Klausimas
What does a data steward add to governance?
Atsakymas
Consistent definitions, quality rules, metadata, lineage, and policy application across business use. The steward connects business meaning to operational handling.
330 kortelė
Klausimas
What is procurement's security role in cloud outsourcing?
Atsakymas
Make required risk, assurance, pricing, ownership, exit, and supplier terms part of selection and negotiation. Security requirements lose force if added after commercial commitment.
331 kortelė
Klausimas
When should an organization avoid a cloud risk rather than mitigate it?
Atsakymas
When stopping the activity is feasible and residual exposure would remain outside appetite or legal authority. Compare the business consequence of avoidance with other treatments.
332 kortelė
Klausimas
What is an external auditor responsible for?
Atsakymas
Perform the agreed independent engagement against stated criteria and report within its scope. The auditor does not own management's controls or risk decisions.
333 kortelė
Klausimas
How do an MSA, SOW, and SLA differ?
Atsakymas
The MSA sets the general legal relationship, the SOW defines specific work and deliverables, and the SLA sets measurable service commitments. Read them together for the full obligation.
334 kortelė
Klausimas
What should a cloud risk register contain?
Atsakymas
Scenario, assets, cause, consequence, owner, likelihood, impact, controls, treatment, residual risk, due dates, and review triggers. Link evidence and dependencies where useful.
335 kortelė
Klausimas
Who should own a cloud contract after signature?
Atsakymas
A named contract or vendor manager with business, legal, security, privacy, and service stakeholders. Ownership includes obligations, evidence, changes, renewals, disputes, and exit.
336 kortelė
Klausimas
Which contract controls support a safe cloud exit?
Atsakymas
Data and configuration export, assistance, timing, format, cost, continued access, verified deletion, transition support, and survival of needed duties. Exercise the exit path before a crisis.
337 kortelė
Klausimas
What makes a contractual right to audit usable?
Atsakymas
Defined scope, notice, frequency, methods, evidence access, confidentiality, cost, remediation, and alternatives when direct testing is unsafe. A vague right may be impossible to exercise.
338 kortelė
Klausimas
When does source-code escrow reduce cloud vendor viability risk?
Atsakymas
When usable code plus dependencies, documentation, rights, updates, and release triggers can support continuity. Escrow adds little if the customer cannot operate the service.
339 kortelė
Klausimas
What should a cloud incident-notification clause define?
Atsakymas
Trigger, timing, recipient, secure channel, minimum facts, updates, cooperation, evidence, regulator support, and subcontractor flow-down. Avoid waiting for the provider's final root cause before notice.
340 kortelė
Klausimas
What should happen to customer data when a cloud contract ends?
Atsakymas
Return or export it in a usable form, preserve only what is lawfully required, revoke access, and verify deletion across in-scope copies under the contract. Data ownership and transition duties should be settled before purchase.

Abstract cloud infrastructure with layered security boundaries, connected control nodes, and an AI model graph.

340 kortelių