What is the safe response to a swollen mobile-device battery?

Power the device off, disconnect external power, and isolate it for approved battery service. Don't charge, puncture, press, or keep using the battery.

Which RAM form factor is common in serviceable laptops?

A SO-DIMM. Match its DDR generation, capacity support, and other platform requirements before installation.

What should you confirm before replacing laptop keys or a keyboard?

Confirm the model's replaceable unit and service procedure. Some keys are individually serviceable; other designs require the keyboard or full top case.

What protects data during a laptop HDD or SSD replacement?

A verified backup and migration plan. Also match the replacement drive's interface, form factor, and supported capacity.

How should tiny antenna leads be handled during wireless-card service?

Label their positions, lift each connector straight up with the proper tool, and reconnect it to the marked terminal. Pulling the wire can damage the lead.

Which built-in laptop components commonly provide physical privacy or identity checks?

Components such as fingerprint or facial-recognition hardware and near-field credential readers. Their firmware, drivers, permissions, and enrollment must all support the feature.

Why does Wi-Fi antenna placement matter after a laptop repair?

Correct routing and terminal placement preserve signal quality. A pinched cable, loose connector, or swapped main/aux lead can weaken wireless performance.

A replacement laptop camera has no image. What should you check before replacing it again?

Check its internal cable, privacy shutter or switch, firmware detection, driver, and app permission. A hardware replacement won't fix a blocked camera setting.

A built-in mobile-device microphone is silent. What should you check first?

Check the selected input, mute state, app permission, and microphone opening. Then inspect the internal connection if every app fails.

Why disconnect the internal battery before replacing laptop RAM, storage, or a display assembly?

To remove standby power from the board and reduce short-circuit risk. Follow the model's shutdown and battery-disconnection procedure.

What should guide any field replacement inside a thin mobile device?

The manufacturer's service instructions, warranty terms, and ESD precautions. Adhesives, hidden cables, and replaceable assemblies vary by model.

How do USB-C, microUSB, and miniUSB differ?

They are different connector shapes. USB-C is reversible; microUSB and miniUSB are older keyed designs, and none of the shapes alone guarantees a data speed.

What can a laptop docking station add through one host connection?

Power, displays, networking, storage, and peripheral ports. The host, dock, cable, and software must support the promised features.

What must match for a stylus to support pressure or precision input?

The stylus technology and the device's digitizer. A generic capacitive stylus may act like a finger but can't add unsupported active-pen features.

Which connector is associated with many older Apple mobile devices?

Lightning. Match the cable to the actual model because newer Apple devices may use USB-C.

How do a headset, external speaker, and webcam extend a mobile workstation?

A headset adds private audio input/output, a speaker adds room audio, and a webcam adds video input. Select each one in the app after connecting it.

How do a trackpad, drawing pad, and trackpoint differ?

A trackpad senses finger gestures, a drawing pad captures pen input, and a trackpoint moves the pointer from a small keyboard-mounted stick.

What is NFC commonly used for on a mobile device?

Very short-range exchanges such as tap-to-pay, credential reading, or quick pairing. Its short working distance supports deliberate tap-style use.

How is a port replicator different from a full docking station?

A port replicator mainly exposes additional connectors; a dock commonly adds broader capabilities such as charging, displays, or networking. Verify the product's actual feature list.

Which connection is the usual choice for nearby mobile headsets and keyboards?

Bluetooth. It provides short-range wireless accessory links with relatively low power use.

What does mobile tethering or hotspot mode do?

It shares the device's internet connection with another client, commonly over Wi-Fi, USB, or Bluetooth. The carrier plan may limit tethering or data use.

How do 3G, 4G, and 5G relate on a mobile device?

They are cellular network generations. Newer generations can offer more capacity or lower latency, but the device, SIM or eSIM, plan, coverage, and local network determine service.

What is the practical difference between a SIM and an eSIM?

A SIM is a removable identity module; an eSIM stores a carrier profile in embedded hardware. Both associate the device with cellular service.

What sequence pairs a Bluetooth accessory safely?

Enable Bluetooth, put the accessory in pairing mode, select the intended device, confirm any PIN or code, and test the connection.

How do GPS and cellular location services complement each other?

GPS derives position from satellites, while cellular and nearby-network data can speed or assist location. App permission and device settings control access.

Which radios should you check when a phone has neither local Wi-Fi nor wide-area data?

Check Wi-Fi and cellular data separately, along with airplane mode. One radio can be disabled while the other remains available.

What should you verify when adding mail to a mobile device?

Verify the account, credentials, incoming and outgoing server settings, security method, and network access. A correct password can't repair a wrong server setting.

A phone can browse on Wi-Fi but not through its hotspot. What should you check?

Check that hotspot service is enabled, cellular data works, the plan permits tethering, and the client has the correct hotspot password.

How should you test a newly configured mobile connection?

Test the intended path and service: join the correct network or carrier, verify addressing or signal, then open the required app or destination.

What does mobile device management provide?

Central enrollment, device configuration, policy enforcement, corporate-app deployment, inventory, and approved remote actions.

How do corporate-owned and BYOD management profiles usually differ?

Corporate-owned devices normally allow broader organizational control; BYOD profiles should isolate managed work data and respect the user's personal data under policy.

What should be checked when calendar, contacts, or business mail stops synchronizing?

Check connectivity, account sign-in, sync scope, device time, storage, and service status before removing the account.

Why do data caps matter to mobile synchronization?

Large mail, cloud-storage, or app sync jobs can consume metered cellular data. Choose what syncs and whether Wi-Fi is required.

When is an MDM remote wipe appropriate?

When policy authorizes removal of protected data from a lost, stolen, retired, or reassigned device. Confirm the exact device and wipe scope first.

What is the point of separating corporate apps and data on a personal phone?

It lets the organization enforce work controls and remove managed data without treating the user's whole device as corporate property.

How do TCP and UDP differ?

TCP provides connection-oriented, ordered, acknowledged delivery; UDP sends low-overhead datagrams without built-in ordering or retransmission.

Which ports are associated with classic FTP?

TCP 21 carries control traffic, and TCP 20 is the traditional active-mode data port. FTP doesn't encrypt credentials or content by itself.

Which default port does SSH use, and what does it provide?

TCP 22. SSH provides encrypted remote command-line access and related secure services.

Which default port is traditionally used for SMTP server-to-server relay?

TCP 25. Mail clients commonly submit outgoing mail through a separate authenticated service.

Which port does DNS use?

Port 53: usually UDP for ordinary queries and TCP when the response or operation requires it.

Which ports carry DHCP client and server traffic?

UDP 68 for the client and UDP 67 for the server. A new client can broadcast before it has an address.

Which ports distinguish HTTP from HTTPS?

HTTP normally uses TCP 80; HTTPS normally uses TCP 443 and protects the session with TLS.

Which default port does POP3 use without TLS?

TCP 110. POP3 commonly downloads messages rather than synchronizing server-side folders like IMAP.

Which ports are associated with NetBIOS over TCP/IP?

Ports 137–139. Name service commonly uses 137, datagram service 138, and session service TCP 139.

Which default port does LDAP use?

Port 389, commonly TCP. LDAP provides directory queries and updates; protect credentials with an approved secure configuration.

Which default port does SMB/CIFS commonly use?

TCP 445. SMB commonly carries file and printer sharing.

Which default port does RDP use?

TCP 3389. RDP provides remote graphical access to a Windows system.

Which default port does Telnet use, and why is it avoided on untrusted networks?

TCP 23. Telnet sends remote-terminal traffic without SSH's encryption.

Which default port does IMAP use without TLS?

TCP 143. IMAP keeps mailbox state and folders synchronized on the server.

How do common 802.11 families map to Wi-Fi bands?

802.11b/g use 2.4 GHz; 802.11a/ac use 5 GHz; 802.11n can use 2.4 or 5 GHz; 802.11ax can use 2.4 or 5 GHz, with Wi-Fi 6E extending it to 6 GHz.

What is the tradeoff when selecting a wider Wi-Fi channel?

A wider channel can carry more data but occupies more spectrum and may overlap more neighbors. Use a width that clients, regulations, and local conditions support.

CompTIA A+ 220-1201 & 220-1202 Flashcards: Core 1 and Core 2

Review current CompTIA A+ V15 Core 1 and Core 2 objectives with original flashcards for hardware, networking, operating systems, security, commands, and troubleshooting.

Di Open Study Contributor

Informazioni su questo mazzo

CompTIA A+ 220-1201 & 220-1202 Flashcards: Core 1 and Core 2

Review the current V15 knowledge behind both CompTIA A+ exams in one 520-card package: 270 cards for Core 1 and 250 for Core 2. The deck covers mobile devices, networking, hardware, virtualization, cloud concepts, operating systems, security, commands, software support, operational procedures, and troubleshooting.

What the cards practice

The cards connect technologies, components, protocols, commands, and common acronyms with their purposes and key behavior. Separate retrieval prompts also work in the useful opposite direction: a technician task or requirement points to the right tool, setting, command, connector, or protocol. Short support scenarios ask for a likely cause, the first useful check, or the next corrective action. Ordered workflows are practiced only when the order matters on the job.

The deck does not mechanically reverse every fact or turn every source bullet into a card. It leaves out low-value acronym production, giant list prompts, unstable click paths, advanced material beyond the V15 entry-level boundary, and near-duplicate wording made only to increase the count.

Learning order

Core 1 starts with mobile hardware and connections, then builds through networking, physical hardware, virtualization, and cloud concepts before applying them to hardware and network troubleshooting. Core 2 moves from operating-system foundations into tools, commands, configuration, security, software troubleshooting, and day-to-day support operations. Inside each topic, recognition comes before selection and short diagnosis. Related forward and reverse cards are kept apart so one prompt does not give away the next.

Labs and PBQs

Flashcards are useful for recall and compact scenario decisions. They do not reproduce hands-on labs, performance-based questions, live command output, or the pressure and ambiguity of the certification exams. Use a real machine, lab environment, and lawful practice tests alongside this deck for installation, configuration, repair, and PBQ-style work.

Scope, provenance, and reuse

The live CompTIA Core 1 and Core 2 V15 pages and the current version 4.0 objective PDFs were reviewed on September 1, 2026. Both PDFs were last modified on November 25, 2025. They were used only to check the exam version, domain boundaries, weighting, and technical scope. Common technical facts are explained in original language and organized for retrieval practice. Public overview pages from three study tools were compared only for structure and learner expectations; their cards, questions, examples, explanations, and course text were not drafting input.

The Common knowledge · CC0 1.0 label applies to the deck’s original prompts, answers, organization, metadata, and generated cover to the extent applicable rights exist. It does not claim ownership of technical facts, CompTIA names, or third-party source material.

This deck is independently authored and unofficial. It is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or sponsored by CompTIA, Inc., and it uses no CompTIA logo or official trade dress.

No CompTIA exam questions, answers, performance-based questions, mark schemes, or objective wording were copied.

Current official requirements: Core 1 V15 (220-1201), Core 1 objectives PDF, Core 2 V15 (220-1202), and Core 2 objectives PDF.

Carte in questo mazzo

Carta 1
Domanda
What is the safe response to a swollen mobile-device battery?
Risposta
Power the device off, disconnect external power, and isolate it for approved battery service. Don't charge, puncture, press, or keep using the battery.
Carta 2
Domanda
Which RAM form factor is common in serviceable laptops?
Risposta
A SO-DIMM. Match its DDR generation, capacity support, and other platform requirements before installation.
Carta 3
Domanda
What should you confirm before replacing laptop keys or a keyboard?
Risposta
Confirm the model's replaceable unit and service procedure. Some keys are individually serviceable; other designs require the keyboard or full top case.
Carta 4
Domanda
What protects data during a laptop HDD or SSD replacement?
Risposta
A verified backup and migration plan. Also match the replacement drive's interface, form factor, and supported capacity.
Carta 5
Domanda
How should tiny antenna leads be handled during wireless-card service?
Risposta
Label their positions, lift each connector straight up with the proper tool, and reconnect it to the marked terminal. Pulling the wire can damage the lead.
Carta 6
Domanda
Which built-in laptop components commonly provide physical privacy or identity checks?
Risposta
Components such as fingerprint or facial-recognition hardware and near-field credential readers. Their firmware, drivers, permissions, and enrollment must all support the feature.
Carta 7
Domanda
Why does Wi-Fi antenna placement matter after a laptop repair?
Risposta
Correct routing and terminal placement preserve signal quality. A pinched cable, loose connector, or swapped main/aux lead can weaken wireless performance.
Carta 8
Domanda
A replacement laptop camera has no image. What should you check before replacing it again?
Risposta
Check its internal cable, privacy shutter or switch, firmware detection, driver, and app permission. A hardware replacement won't fix a blocked camera setting.
Carta 9
Domanda
A built-in mobile-device microphone is silent. What should you check first?
Risposta
Check the selected input, mute state, app permission, and microphone opening. Then inspect the internal connection if every app fails.
Carta 10
Domanda
Why disconnect the internal battery before replacing laptop RAM, storage, or a display assembly?
Risposta
To remove standby power from the board and reduce short-circuit risk. Follow the model's shutdown and battery-disconnection procedure.
Carta 11
Domanda
What should guide any field replacement inside a thin mobile device?
Risposta
The manufacturer's service instructions, warranty terms, and ESD precautions. Adhesives, hidden cables, and replaceable assemblies vary by model.
Carta 12
Domanda
How do USB-C, microUSB, and miniUSB differ?
Risposta
They are different connector shapes. USB-C is reversible; microUSB and miniUSB are older keyed designs, and none of the shapes alone guarantees a data speed.
Carta 13
Domanda
What can a laptop docking station add through one host connection?
Risposta
Power, displays, networking, storage, and peripheral ports. The host, dock, cable, and software must support the promised features.
Carta 14
Domanda
What must match for a stylus to support pressure or precision input?
Risposta
The stylus technology and the device's digitizer. A generic capacitive stylus may act like a finger but can't add unsupported active-pen features.
Carta 15
Domanda
Which connector is associated with many older Apple mobile devices?
Risposta
Lightning. Match the cable to the actual model because newer Apple devices may use USB-C.
Carta 16
Domanda
How do a headset, external speaker, and webcam extend a mobile workstation?
Risposta
A headset adds private audio input/output, a speaker adds room audio, and a webcam adds video input. Select each one in the app after connecting it.
Carta 17
Domanda
How do a trackpad, drawing pad, and trackpoint differ?
Risposta
A trackpad senses finger gestures, a drawing pad captures pen input, and a trackpoint moves the pointer from a small keyboard-mounted stick.
Carta 18
Domanda
What is NFC commonly used for on a mobile device?
Risposta
Very short-range exchanges such as tap-to-pay, credential reading, or quick pairing. Its short working distance supports deliberate tap-style use.
Carta 19
Domanda
How is a port replicator different from a full docking station?
Risposta
A port replicator mainly exposes additional connectors; a dock commonly adds broader capabilities such as charging, displays, or networking. Verify the product's actual feature list.
Carta 20
Domanda
Which connection is the usual choice for nearby mobile headsets and keyboards?
Risposta
Bluetooth. It provides short-range wireless accessory links with relatively low power use.
Carta 21
Domanda
What does mobile tethering or hotspot mode do?
Risposta
It shares the device's internet connection with another client, commonly over Wi-Fi, USB, or Bluetooth. The carrier plan may limit tethering or data use.
Carta 22
Domanda
How do 3G, 4G, and 5G relate on a mobile device?
Risposta
They are cellular network generations. Newer generations can offer more capacity or lower latency, but the device, SIM or eSIM, plan, coverage, and local network determine service.
Carta 23
Domanda
What is the practical difference between a SIM and an eSIM?
Risposta
A SIM is a removable identity module; an eSIM stores a carrier profile in embedded hardware. Both associate the device with cellular service.
Carta 24
Domanda
What sequence pairs a Bluetooth accessory safely?
Risposta
Enable Bluetooth, put the accessory in pairing mode, select the intended device, confirm any PIN or code, and test the connection.
Carta 25
Domanda
How do GPS and cellular location services complement each other?
Risposta
GPS derives position from satellites, while cellular and nearby-network data can speed or assist location. App permission and device settings control access.
Carta 26
Domanda
Which radios should you check when a phone has neither local Wi-Fi nor wide-area data?
Risposta
Check Wi-Fi and cellular data separately, along with airplane mode. One radio can be disabled while the other remains available.
Carta 27
Domanda
What should you verify when adding mail to a mobile device?
Risposta
Verify the account, credentials, incoming and outgoing server settings, security method, and network access. A correct password can't repair a wrong server setting.
Carta 28
Domanda
A phone can browse on Wi-Fi but not through its hotspot. What should you check?
Risposta
Check that hotspot service is enabled, cellular data works, the plan permits tethering, and the client has the correct hotspot password.
Carta 29
Domanda
How should you test a newly configured mobile connection?
Risposta
Test the intended path and service: join the correct network or carrier, verify addressing or signal, then open the required app or destination.
Carta 30
Domanda
What does mobile device management provide?
Risposta
Central enrollment, device configuration, policy enforcement, corporate-app deployment, inventory, and approved remote actions.
Carta 31
Domanda
How do corporate-owned and BYOD management profiles usually differ?
Risposta
Corporate-owned devices normally allow broader organizational control; BYOD profiles should isolate managed work data and respect the user's personal data under policy.
Carta 32
Domanda
What should be checked when calendar, contacts, or business mail stops synchronizing?
Risposta
Check connectivity, account sign-in, sync scope, device time, storage, and service status before removing the account.
Carta 33
Domanda
Why do data caps matter to mobile synchronization?
Risposta
Large mail, cloud-storage, or app sync jobs can consume metered cellular data. Choose what syncs and whether Wi-Fi is required.
Carta 34
Domanda
When is an MDM remote wipe appropriate?
Risposta
When policy authorizes removal of protected data from a lost, stolen, retired, or reassigned device. Confirm the exact device and wipe scope first.
Carta 35
Domanda
What is the point of separating corporate apps and data on a personal phone?
Risposta
It lets the organization enforce work controls and remove managed data without treating the user's whole device as corporate property.
Carta 36
Domanda
How do TCP and UDP differ?
Risposta
TCP provides connection-oriented, ordered, acknowledged delivery; UDP sends low-overhead datagrams without built-in ordering or retransmission.
Carta 37
Domanda
Which ports are associated with classic FTP?
Risposta
TCP 21 carries control traffic, and TCP 20 is the traditional active-mode data port. FTP doesn't encrypt credentials or content by itself.
Carta 38
Domanda
Which default port does SSH use, and what does it provide?
Risposta
TCP 22. SSH provides encrypted remote command-line access and related secure services.
Carta 39
Domanda
Which default port is traditionally used for SMTP server-to-server relay?
Risposta
TCP 25. Mail clients commonly submit outgoing mail through a separate authenticated service.
Carta 40
Domanda
Which port does DNS use?
Risposta
Port 53: usually UDP for ordinary queries and TCP when the response or operation requires it.
Carta 41
Domanda
Which ports carry DHCP client and server traffic?
Risposta
UDP 68 for the client and UDP 67 for the server. A new client can broadcast before it has an address.
Carta 42
Domanda
Which ports distinguish HTTP from HTTPS?
Risposta
HTTP normally uses TCP 80; HTTPS normally uses TCP 443 and protects the session with TLS.
Carta 43
Domanda
Which default port does POP3 use without TLS?
Risposta
TCP 110. POP3 commonly downloads messages rather than synchronizing server-side folders like IMAP.
Carta 44
Domanda
Which ports are associated with NetBIOS over TCP/IP?
Risposta
Ports 137–139. Name service commonly uses 137, datagram service 138, and session service TCP 139.
Carta 45
Domanda
Which default port does LDAP use?
Risposta
Port 389, commonly TCP. LDAP provides directory queries and updates; protect credentials with an approved secure configuration.
Carta 46
Domanda
Which default port does SMB/CIFS commonly use?
Risposta
TCP 445. SMB commonly carries file and printer sharing.
Carta 47
Domanda
Which default port does RDP use?
Risposta
TCP 3389. RDP provides remote graphical access to a Windows system.
Carta 48
Domanda
Which default port does Telnet use, and why is it avoided on untrusted networks?
Risposta
TCP 23. Telnet sends remote-terminal traffic without SSH's encryption.
Carta 49
Domanda
Which default port does IMAP use without TLS?
Risposta
TCP 143. IMAP keeps mailbox state and folders synchronized on the server.
Carta 50
Domanda
How do common 802.11 families map to Wi-Fi bands?
Risposta
802.11b/g use 2.4 GHz; 802.11a/ac use 5 GHz; 802.11n can use 2.4 or 5 GHz; 802.11ax can use 2.4 or 5 GHz, with Wi-Fi 6E extending it to 6 GHz.
Carta 51
Domanda
What is the tradeoff when selecting a wider Wi-Fi channel?
Risposta
A wider channel can carry more data but occupies more spectrum and may overlap more neighbors. Use a width that clients, regulations, and local conditions support.
Carta 52
Domanda
What networking role does Bluetooth fill?
Risposta
Short-range personal-area links for accessories and nearby devices. It trades range and throughput for convenience and relatively low power use.
Carta 53
Domanda
How do the 2.4, 5, and 6 GHz Wi-Fi bands generally differ?
Risposta
2.4 GHz usually reaches farther but is crowded; 5 GHz offers more capacity with less wall penetration; 6 GHz adds clean spectrum for compatible devices but typically has the shortest reach.
Carta 54
Domanda
How does NFC differ from general-purpose Wi-Fi?
Risposta
NFC handles deliberate, very short-range exchanges; Wi-Fi provides a longer-range network connection with much higher throughput.
Carta 55
Domanda
What should guide Wi-Fi channel selection?
Risposta
Local regulations, a spectrum or Wi-Fi survey, channel width, band support, interference, and neighboring use. Choose from measured conditions, then retest where users work.
Carta 56
Domanda
What is RFID used for?
Risposta
Identifying or tracking tagged objects by radio. Readers can work with passive or powered tags at ranges set by the RFID system.
Carta 57
Domanda
What distinguishes Wi-Fi 6E from ordinary Wi-Fi 6 operation?
Risposta
Wi-Fi 6E permits compatible 802.11ax devices to use the 6 GHz band. Both the client and access point must support that band.
Carta 58
Domanda
How do DNS and DHCP server roles differ?
Risposta
DNS resolves names to records; DHCP leases IP configuration such as an address, mask, gateway, and DNS servers.
Carta 59
Domanda
How do file and print servers centralize shared resources?
Risposta
A file server hosts shared data and permissions; a print server manages printer queues, drivers, and access.
Carta 60
Domanda
How do mail and web servers differ?
Risposta
A mail server transfers or stores messages; a web server returns site or application content over HTTP or HTTPS.
Carta 61
Domanda
Why would a network use both syslog and NTP servers?
Risposta
Syslog centralizes event messages, while NTP aligns device clocks so those events have comparable timestamps.
Carta 62
Domanda
How do AAA and database servers differ?
Risposta
An AAA server handles authentication, authorization, and accounting; a database server stores and queries structured application data.
Carta 63
Domanda
How do a spam gateway and a proxy serve different traffic?
Risposta
A spam gateway filters mail flow; a proxy relays client requests and may enforce filtering, logging, or caching for supported services.
Carta 64
Domanda
How do a UTM appliance and a load balancer differ?
Risposta
A UTM combines gateway security controls; a load balancer distributes requests across service instances for capacity or availability.
Carta 65
Domanda
Why do legacy and embedded network systems need cautious support planning?
Risposta
They may have fixed software, limited interfaces, or long service lives. Isolate them, preserve required compatibility, and change them only within vendor and operational constraints.
Carta 66
Domanda
What does SCADA monitor or control?
Risposta
Industrial processes and equipment. Availability and physical safety requirements belong in every support decision.
Carta 67
Domanda
Why are IoT devices often placed on a separate network?
Risposta
Segmentation limits what an outdated or compromised device can reach and makes its traffic easier to manage.
Carta 68
Domanda
Match DNS A, AAAA, CNAME, and MX records to their jobs.
Risposta
A maps a hostname to IPv4, AAAA maps it to IPv6, CNAME aliases one hostname to another, and MX identifies a domain's mail exchangers.
Carta 69
Domanda
How do a DHCP scope and exclusion differ?
Risposta
The scope defines the address pool and options DHCP can offer; an exclusion removes selected addresses from automatic leasing.
Carta 70
Domanda
What does a VLAN create on switched infrastructure?
Risposta
A logical Layer 2 broadcast domain. It separates traffic without requiring a different physical switch for every segment.
Carta 71
Domanda
What does a VPN protect?
Risposta
Traffic across an untrusted network by creating an authenticated encrypted tunnel. Endpoint security and resource permissions still matter.
Carta 72
Domanda
How do DNS TXT records support SPF, DKIM, and DMARC?
Risposta
TXT records publish mail-policy data: SPF lists authorized senders, DKIM exposes keys for signature checks, and DMARC sets alignment policy and reporting.
Carta 73
Domanda
How do a DHCP lease and reservation differ?
Risposta
A lease is a time-limited address assignment; a reservation consistently offers a chosen address to a specific client, usually by MAC address.
Carta 74
Domanda
How do access and trunk switch ports handle VLANs?
Risposta
An access port normally carries one endpoint VLAN; a trunk carries tagged traffic for multiple VLANs.
Carta 75
Domanda
When would you choose a site-to-site VPN instead of a client VPN?
Risposta
Choose site-to-site for a persistent protected link between networks; choose a client VPN for an individual endpoint connecting remotely.
Carta 76
Domanda
How do routers and Ethernet switches differ?
Risposta
A router forwards packets between IP networks; a switch forwards local frames using learned MAC-address locations.
Carta 77
Domanda
What does a wireless access point do?
Risposta
It bridges compatible wireless clients onto a wired LAN. Routing, DHCP, and internet access may come from other devices.
Carta 78
Domanda
What is a patch panel's role?
Risposta
It passively terminates and organizes permanent cable runs. Patch cords connect those runs to active equipment such as switches.
Carta 79
Domanda
What is a firewall's core job?
Risposta
It permits or blocks traffic according to security rules. Logs help explain why expected traffic was accepted or denied.
Carta 80
Domanda
How do managed and unmanaged switches differ?
Risposta
A managed switch exposes configuration and monitoring such as VLANs; an unmanaged switch provides basic switching with little or no administration.
Carta 81
Domanda
How can PoE be supplied, and what must match?
Risposta
A PoE switch or injector can supply it. The source standard, powered device, cable, per-port state, and total power budget must be compatible.
Carta 82
Domanda
Match cable modem, DSL modem, ONT, and NIC to their access roles.
Risposta
Cable and DSL modems terminate coax and telephone-copper services; an ONT terminates provider fiber; a NIC connects the host and carries its physical MAC address.
Carta 83
Domanda
How do private and public IPv4 addresses differ?
Risposta
Private ranges are used inside networks and aren't routed on the public internet; a public address is globally routable when assigned. NAT often translates between them.
Carta 84
Domanda
What does a 169.254.x.x IPv4 address usually indicate?
Risposta
APIPA self-assignment after the host failed to obtain DHCP configuration. Check the link and path to DHCP.
Carta 85
Domanda
When should a SOHO device use static rather than dynamic IP configuration?
Risposta
Use static or reserved addressing when a predictable endpoint is required; use DHCP for ordinary clients that can accept leased settings.
Carta 86
Domanda
What does an IPv4 subnet mask tell a host?
Risposta
Which address bits identify the local network. The host uses it to decide whether to send directly or through a gateway.
Carta 87
Domanda
How does IPv6 addressing differ from IPv4 addressing?
Risposta
IPv6 uses 128-bit hexadecimal addresses; IPv4 uses 32-bit dotted-decimal addresses. Both still require correct local and routing configuration.
Carta 88
Domanda
What does a default gateway provide?
Risposta
The next hop for destinations outside the local subnet. It is normally the local router interface for that network.
Carta 89
Domanda
How do fiber, cable, and DSL internet access differ?
Risposta
Fiber carries light and offers high capacity; cable uses a shared coax access network; DSL carries broadband over telephone copper and depends strongly on line distance and quality.
Carta 90
Domanda
How do PAN, LAN, and WLAN differ?
Risposta
A PAN links one person's nearby devices, a LAN serves a local site, and a WLAN is the wireless form of a local-area network.
Carta 91
Domanda
When are cellular, WISP, and satellite internet useful?
Risposta
Cellular uses mobile coverage, a WISP uses a terrestrial provider radio link, and satellite reaches beyond many ground networks. Signal, latency, limits, and availability guide the choice.
Carta 92
Domanda
How do MAN and WAN scopes differ?
Risposta
A MAN links sites across a city or metropolitan area; a WAN spans larger geographic distances and joins multiple networks.
Carta 93
Domanda
What is a storage area network?
Risposta
A SAN is a dedicated network that presents shared block storage to servers. It is different from an ordinary user LAN or file share.
Carta 94
Domanda
Which tools prepare and terminate a modular copper cable?
Risposta
A cable stripper removes the jacket; a crimper attaches a compatible modular plug. Use the intended pinout, then test the cable.
Carta 95
Domanda
How do a punchdown tool and cable tester support a permanent cable run?
Risposta
The punchdown tool seats conductors into an IDC block; the tester checks continuity and wire-map faults after termination.
Carta 96
Domanda
How do a toner probe and loopback plug answer different network questions?
Risposta
A tone generator and probe identify a cable's far end; a loopback plug tests whether a port can transmit and receive through its own interface.
Carta 97
Domanda
How do a Wi-Fi analyzer and network tap differ?
Risposta
A Wi-Fi analyzer measures nearby wireless networks and channels; a network tap exposes a link's traffic to monitoring equipment without becoming the endpoint.
Carta 98
Domanda
How do IPS, TN, and VA LCD panels generally differ?
Risposta
IPS favors color consistency and viewing angles, TN favors fast response at low cost, and VA favors contrast. Actual panel quality still varies.
Carta 99
Domanda
How do OLED and Mini-LED displays produce light?
Risposta
OLED pixels emit their own light; Mini-LED is an LCD that uses many small backlight zones. OLED can show deep blacks, while Mini-LED can reach high brightness without organic pixels.
Carta 100
Domanda
What does a touchscreen digitizer do?
Risposta
It detects touch or compatible stylus position. The display creates the image; the digitizer reports input coordinates.
Carta 101
Domanda
What does an inverter do in an older LCD backlight system?
Risposta
It converts power for the fluorescent backlight. Modern LED-backlit panels use different driver electronics.
Carta 102
Domanda
How do screen resolution and pixel density differ?
Risposta
Resolution is the number of addressable pixels; pixel density is how tightly those pixels fit in a physical area. Both affect perceived detail.
Carta 103
Domanda
What do refresh rate and color gamut describe?
Risposta
Refresh rate is how often the image can update each second; color gamut is the range of colors the display can reproduce.
Carta 104
Domanda
How do Cat 5e, Cat 6, and Cat 6A Ethernet cable capabilities compare?
Risposta
Cat 5e commonly supports 1 Gb/s to 100 m; Cat 6 improves noise performance and can support 10 Gb/s on shorter runs; Cat 6A is designed for 10 Gb/s to 100 m.
Carta 105
Domanda
How do HDMI and DisplayPort fit typical display setups?
Risposta
Both carry digital video and audio. HDMI is common on TVs and consumer equipment; DisplayPort is common on PCs and monitors, with features set by the negotiated versions.
Carta 106
Domanda
What is the practical difference between T568A and T568B terminations?
Risposta
They place the green and orange pairs in different pin positions. Use one recognized scheme consistently at both plug and punchdown-block terminations for a normal straight-through run.
Carta 107
Domanda
Which cable ratings suit EMI, outdoor burial, and air-handling spaces?
Risposta
Unshielded twisted pair suits ordinary low-interference runs, shielded twisted pair helps with EMI, direct-burial cable resists outdoor moisture, and plenum-rated cable limits flame spread and smoke in plenum spaces.
Carta 108
Domanda
Match RJ11, RJ45, and F-type connectors to common cabling.
Risposta
RJ11 is commonly used for telephone wiring, the 8P8C connector called RJ45 for twisted-pair Ethernet, and F-type for threaded coax connections.
Carta 109
Domanda
How do DVI and VGA differ?
Risposta
DVI variants may carry digital video, analog video, or both; VGA carries analog video through a 15-pin D-sub connector.
Carta 110
Domanda
How do single-mode and multimode fiber differ, and which connectors may terminate them?
Risposta
Single-mode uses a small core for long links; multimode uses a larger core for shorter links. ST, SC, and LC are connector styles that must match the link hardware and fiber type.
Carta 111
Domanda
What should you infer from USB 2.0, USB 3.x, microUSB, miniUSB, USB-C, and Lightning labels?
Risposta
USB 2.0 and 3.x describe protocol capabilities. MicroUSB, miniUSB, and USB-C are USB connector families; Lightning is a separate Apple connector. Plug shape alone doesn't guarantee speed or video support.
Carta 112
Domanda
How do SATA, eSATA, and Molex relate to storage connections?
Risposta
SATA carries internal drive data, eSATA extends SATA to an external connector, and a Molex plug is a legacy power connector. Data and power paths are separate.
Carta 113
Domanda
Which legacy peripheral link commonly uses a DB9 connector?
Risposta
A serial connection such as RS-232. It sends data sequentially and is still used for some console and industrial equipment.
Carta 114
Domanda
When does a cable adapter need active electronics?
Risposta
When the source and destination use different signaling, not just different plug shapes. A passive adapter only changes compatible wiring; an active adapter converts the signal.
Carta 115
Domanda
Where are DIMM and SO-DIMM modules normally used?
Risposta
Full-size DIMMs normally fit desktop or server boards; shorter SO-DIMMs fit many laptops and compact systems.
Carta 116
Domanda
Why doesn't every USB-C cable provide Thunderbolt or display output?
Risposta
USB-C names the connector. Thunderbolt, USB speed, charging level, and video alternate modes require matching support from the port, cable, and device.
Carta 117
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Can one DDR memory generation be installed in another generation's slot?
Risposta
No. DDR generations use different electrical designs and keying, so the module must match the motherboard.
Carta 118
Domanda
How does ECC RAM differ from non-ECC RAM?
Risposta
ECC can detect and correct certain memory errors; non-ECC lacks that protection. The CPU and motherboard must support ECC.
Carta 119
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What does a dual- or multi-channel memory configuration require?
Risposta
Compatible modules installed in the motherboard's paired channel slots. The board manual identifies the correct population order.
Carta 120
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What happens when compatible RAM modules have different rated speeds?
Risposta
They normally operate at a mutually supported speed, often the slower module's rate. Platform and firmware limits can reduce it further.
Carta 121
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What limits a system's usable RAM capacity?
Risposta
The CPU memory controller, motherboard, firmware, operating system, and supported module layout. Check the platform documentation before buying modules.
Carta 122
Domanda
How do RAID 0 and RAID 1 trade capacity for protection?
Risposta
RAID 0 stripes data for capacity and performance but has no redundancy; RAID 1 mirrors data and can survive one member failure.
Carta 123
Domanda
How do 2.5-inch and 3.5-inch HDDs, spindle speed, and workload affect a drive choice?
Risposta
The bay and interface must fit the form factor; faster spindle speed can improve access but adds heat, noise, and power use. Workload and capacity still matter.
Carta 124
Domanda
How do SATA SSDs and NVMe SSDs communicate?
Risposta
A SATA SSD uses the SATA storage interface; an NVMe SSD uses PCIe for lower-latency flash access. The slot and firmware must support the selected signaling.
Carta 125
Domanda
Which removable media suit portable files, camera storage, and optical archives?
Risposta
USB flash drives suit general transfers, memory cards suit compact devices such as cameras, and optical discs require a drive that supports the disc format.
Carta 126
Domanda
How do RAID 5 and RAID 6 differ?
Risposta
RAID 5 needs at least three drives and tolerates one member failure; RAID 6 needs at least four and uses dual parity to tolerate two.
Carta 127
Domanda
What distinguishes SAS from SATA storage?
Risposta
SAS is an enterprise-oriented serial SCSI interface with features such as dual-port support; SATA is common in client storage. The drive and controller interface must match.
Carta 128
Domanda
How do M.2 and mSATA differ?
Risposta
M.2 is a keyed form-factor family that may carry SATA or PCIe/NVMe; mSATA is an older compact form factor that carries SATA signaling.
Carta 129
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When is an SSD preferable to an HDD?
Risposta
Choose an SSD for low-latency, shock-resistant storage; choose an HDD when low-cost bulk capacity matters more. Neither removes the need for backup.
Carta 130
Domanda
How do ATX, microATX, and Mini-ITX motherboard form factors affect a build?
Risposta
They differ in board size, mounting layout, and typical expansion capacity. The case, power supply, and required slots must fit the board.
Carta 131
Domanda
Match common motherboard connectors to their jobs.
Risposta
PCI and PCIe host expansion cards; SATA and eSATA carry storage data; M.2 hosts compact devices; headers connect case features; power connectors feed the board and CPU.
Carta 132
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What does RAID 10 provide?
Risposta
Striping across mirrored pairs, normally using at least four drives. It combines performance with redundancy, but surviving multiple failures depends on which members fail.
Carta 133
Domanda
What must match before installing an AMD or Intel CPU?
Risposta
The CPU socket, chipset, firmware, and thermal design must support that exact processor. Multisocket boards also require a supported processor combination.
Carta 134
Domanda
Which UEFI settings commonly control startup and hardware access?
Risposta
Boot order, removable-media boot, USB permissions, fan behavior, temperature monitoring, and virtualization support. Change only the setting required for the task.
Carta 135
Domanda
How do Secure Boot, a boot password, and a firmware setup password differ?
Risposta
Secure Boot verifies trusted boot software; a boot password challenges startup; a setup password restricts firmware changes.
Carta 136
Domanda
How do x86, x64, and ARM CPU architectures affect compatibility?
Risposta
They use different instruction-set families; x86 is 32-bit, x64 extends that family to 64-bit, and ARM uses a RISC design. The OS and applications need compatible builds.
Carta 137
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What does adding CPU cores improve?
Risposta
Parallel work when software can use the cores. Architecture, clock speed, cooling, memory, and workload still shape performance.
Carta 138
Domanda
Match sound, video, capture, and network expansion cards to their jobs.
Risposta
Sound cards handle audio I/O, video cards render graphics, capture cards ingest external media signals, and NICs add network connectivity.
Carta 139
Domanda
How do a TPM and HSM support encryption differently?
Risposta
A TPM is a system security chip for protected keys and platform measurements; an HSM is a dedicated device or service for controlled cryptographic key operations.
Carta 140
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How do fans and heat sinks work together?
Risposta
A heat sink spreads component heat across fins; fans move air across those fins and through the case.
Carta 141
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Why are thermal paste or pads placed between a chip and cooler?
Risposta
They fill microscopic gaps so heat transfers efficiently. Use the specified material and amount.
Carta 142
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What extra components does liquid CPU cooling add to diagnosis?
Risposta
A pump, coolant path, radiator, fans, tubing, and seals. Verify mounting, flow, airflow, and leaks.
Carta 143
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What hardware and firmware support may a hypervisor require?
Risposta
A compatible CPU virtualization feature enabled in UEFI, plus enough memory, storage, networking, and security controls for its guests.
Carta 144
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What must be checked when a PSU can receive 110–120 VAC or 220–240 VAC?
Risposta
Its input range and selector behavior. Use the local mains range and never guess with a manual voltage switch.
Carta 145
Domanda
What do the 3.3 V, 5 V, and 12 V PSU rails typically power?
Risposta
They supply different component circuits: 3.3 V and 5 V serve logic and peripherals, while 12 V commonly feeds CPU/GPU regulators, motors, and fans.
Carta 146
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What does a 20+4-pin ATX connector power?
Risposta
The motherboard's main input. The CPU normally needs a separate 4- or 8-pin EPS-style connection.
Carta 147
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How should PSU wattage be chosen?
Risposta
Add the system's realistic peak demand and sensible headroom, then confirm connector, rail, and quality requirements. A large wattage label alone doesn't prove suitability.
Carta 148
Domanda
What is the advantage and main caution of a modular PSU?
Risposta
Detachable cables reduce clutter, but only cables approved for that exact PSU should be used. Modular pinouts aren't universally interchangeable.
Carta 149
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What does a redundant power supply provide?
Risposta
Two or more power modules so one can fail without immediately stopping the system. Redundancy still needs correct capacity and monitoring.
Carta 150
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Why does PSU efficiency matter?
Risposta
Higher efficiency wastes less input power as heat at a given load. Efficiency certification doesn't replace checks for electrical quality, capacity, or connectors.
Carta 151
Domanda
How does a laser printer create and fix an image?
Risposta
It forms an electrostatic image, applies toner, and bonds the toner with a heated fuser. Toner, drum, transfer, and fuser parts all affect output.
Carta 152
Domanda
What should be checked when unboxing and placing a multifunction printer?
Risposta
Remove shipping locks, allow service clearance and ventilation, match power and network access, load supported media, and choose a stable location.
Carta 153
Domanda
How do PCL and PostScript printer drivers differ?
Risposta
PCL is common for fast office output and can vary by device; PostScript describes pages in a device-independent way that suits complex graphics. Use the printer's supported driver.
Carta 154
Domanda
What should be verified when choosing USB, Ethernet, or Wi-Fi for a printer?
Risposta
Verify the intended users, cable or signal path, addressing, security, firmware, and driver support. USB serves a local host; network links serve reachable clients.
Carta 155
Domanda
Which parts and maintenance tasks are typical for an inkjet printer?
Risposta
Ink cartridges, printheads, pickup rollers, and feeders. Clean or align printheads, replace approved cartridges, clear jams, and service feed parts as needed.
Carta 156
Domanda
How do printer sharing and a print server differ?
Risposta
A printer share exposes a queue from a host; a print server centralizes queues, drivers, permissions, and management for many clients.
Carta 157
Domanda
Which settings commonly change a print job's physical output?
Risposta
Duplex, portrait or landscape orientation, paper tray and size, and quality. The application, driver, and device settings must agree.
Carta 158
Domanda
Which controls protect a public or shared printer?
Risposta
User authentication or badging, secure print release, appropriate permissions, and audit logs. They reduce abandoned sensitive output and trace approved use.
Carta 159
Domanda
How does a direct thermal printer work and what maintenance does it need?
Risposta
Heat darkens special thermal paper. Replace the paper correctly, clean the heating element and feed path, and remove debris.
Carta 160
Domanda
Where can a network multifunction device send scans?
Risposta
Common destinations are email, an SMB file share, or an approved cloud service. Configure credentials, permissions, addressing, and encryption for the destination.
Carta 161
Domanda
When should you use an ADF instead of a flatbed scanner?
Risposta
Use the automatic document feeder for stacks of loose pages; use the flatbed for fragile, bound, thick, or single originals.
Carta 162
Domanda
What does printer calibration correct?
Risposta
Placement, density, alignment, or color registration. Run the maker's procedure after relevant part or image-quality changes.
Carta 163
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Why does an impact printer suit multipart forms?
Risposta
Pins strike an inked ribbon and physically transfer the mark through layered paper. The mechanism is noisy but can mark multiple copies.
Carta 164
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What does a laser-printer maintenance kit commonly refresh?
Risposta
Wear parts such as rollers and the fuser, as defined for that model. Replace depleted toner, install the kit at its service interval, calibrate when output shifts, and clean only through approved paths.
Carta 165
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How do inkjet feed and printhead maintenance address different faults?
Risposta
Roller and feeder service fixes paper movement; printhead cleaning or alignment fixes missing or misplaced ink. Use the symptom to choose the maintenance.
Carta 166
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What is a virtual machine?
Risposta
A software-defined computer with virtual CPU, memory, storage, and devices that runs a guest operating system on a host.
Carta 167
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Where does a Type 1 hypervisor run?
Risposta
Directly on the host hardware. This bare-metal design is common in servers and virtualization platforms.
Carta 168
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Why use a VM as a sandbox or test environment?
Risposta
It isolates a disposable environment from the main workload and makes repeatable testing easier. Isolation reduces risk but doesn't make untrusted code harmless.
Carta 169
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Which VM resources must be sized against real host capacity?
Risposta
vCPU, memory, storage space, and I/O. Overcommitting them can make several guests compete for the same hardware.
Carta 170
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What does application virtualization do?
Risposta
It packages, streams, or isolates an application from the base installation. It can simplify delivery or preserve some legacy applications without virtualizing a whole desktop.
Carta 171
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Where does a Type 2 hypervisor run?
Risposta
As an application on a host operating system. It is convenient for desktop labs, testing, and occasional guests.
Carta 172
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Which security layers need attention on a virtualization host?
Risposta
The host, hypervisor, management access, guest OSs, virtual networks, and images. Patch and isolate each layer according to its role.
Carta 173
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What must be planned for VM networking?
Risposta
Addressing, virtual switch or NAT mode, segmentation, bandwidth, and access controls. A guest still needs a deliberate path to required services.
Carta 174
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What does VDI deliver?
Risposta
Centrally hosted desktop sessions to remote clients. Compute and management stay in the data center or cloud rather than on each endpoint.
Carta 175
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What must be planned for VM storage?
Risposta
Capacity, performance, snapshots, backup, and failure location. A snapshot on the same datastore isn't a complete backup.
Carta 176
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How does a container differ from a typical VM?
Risposta
A container isolates an application while sharing the host kernel; a VM normally includes a full guest operating system.
Carta 177
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How can virtualization support legacy or cross-platform workloads?
Risposta
A compatible guest OS or virtualized application layer can preserve the required environment. CPU architecture, licenses, drivers, and hardware access still constrain compatibility.
Carta 178
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What does a container image provide?
Risposta
A repeatable application filesystem and configuration used to start containers. Running containers add temporary writable state unless storage is attached.
Carta 179
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A virtualization option is unavailable. What should you verify?
Risposta
Verify CPU and platform support, then enable the required virtualization feature in UEFI if policy allows. Also confirm that another hypervisor hasn't claimed it.
Carta 180
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What defines a public cloud?
Risposta
It is offered for open use by the general public and operated by a cloud provider. Its resources may be shared or dedicated, depending on the service.
Carta 181
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What does IaaS provide?
Risposta
Cloud compute, networking, and storage infrastructure. The customer usually manages the operating system, applications, identities, and data.
Carta 182
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What is cloud elasticity?
Risposta
The ability to add or remove resources as demand changes, automatically or on request.
Carta 183
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What does metered cloud utilization measure?
Risposta
Consumed resources such as compute time, storage, requests, or transferred data for reporting, limits, and billing.
Carta 184
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What defines a private cloud?
Risposta
Cloud infrastructure reserved for one organization. It can run on-site or be hosted and operated by a provider.
Carta 185
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What does SaaS provide?
Risposta
A complete provider-run application accessed as a service. The customer mainly manages users, settings, and data.
Carta 186
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How do shared and dedicated cloud resources differ?
Risposta
Shared resources serve multiple customers with logical isolation; dedicated resources are reserved for one customer. Either can appear in a provider's public-cloud offering.
Carta 187
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What is high availability designed to reduce?
Risposta
Service downtime from component or location failure through redundancy and failover.
Carta 188
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What is a hybrid cloud?
Risposta
A coordinated use of private-cloud and public-cloud environments, with workloads or data placed where their requirements fit.
Carta 189
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What does PaaS provide?
Risposta
A managed application platform and runtime. Developers deploy code while the provider manages more of the operating system and infrastructure.
Carta 190
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What do cloud ingress and egress mean?
Risposta
Ingress is data entering the cloud service; egress is data leaving it. Providers often meter them differently, and egress can create a notable cost.
Carta 191
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What does cloud multitenancy mean?
Risposta
Multiple customers use provider infrastructure while their workloads and data remain logically isolated.
Carta 192
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What is a community cloud?
Risposta
Cloud infrastructure reserved for organizations with shared requirements, such as a sector or policy need, rather than for unrestricted public use.
Carta 193
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What does FaaS run?
Risposta
Event-triggered functions without the customer managing servers directly. The provider manages the execution environment and scaling mechanics.
Carta 194
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Does using a cloud service remove the customer's security duties?
Risposta
No. Responsibility is shared: the provider protects its service layers, while the customer still manages assigned areas such as identities, settings, applications, and data.
Carta 195
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What can happen when two offline devices edit the same cloud-synchronized file?
Risposta
A synchronization conflict. Preserve both versions, let sync finish, compare the changes, and keep the intended content.
Carta 196
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A PC stops at POST with a beep or status-light pattern. What should you do next?
Risposta
Look up the exact pattern in the system or motherboard service documentation, then test the indicated component.
Carta 197
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A desktop shows no lights or fan movement. Where should power diagnosis start?
Risposta
At the outlet, power strip, cord, PSU input switch, and main internal power connections. Move from the source inward.
Carta 198
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A PC shows a proprietary crash screen. What evidence should you collect first?
Risposta
Record the stop code and recent hardware changes, then check memory, storage, drivers, temperature, and logs indicated by that code.
Carta 199
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A PC powers on but the screen stays blank. What hardware checks come first?
Risposta
Check display power and input, video cabling, GPU seating or power, and whether POST completes. Test one known-good display path at a time.
Carta 200
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A computer is sluggish under ordinary work. Which hardware conditions should you check?
Risposta
Check temperature and throttling, RAM pressure, storage health and free space, CPU load, and background I/O before replacing parts.
Carta 201
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A PC becomes unstable as CPU temperature rises. What should you inspect?
Risposta
Inspect fan operation, heat-sink mounting, thermal material, dust, filters, and case airflow. The CPU may throttle or shut down to protect itself.
Carta 202
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You smell burning from a powered computer. What is the immediate action?
Risposta
Shut it down and disconnect power. Don't keep testing until the damaged power or board component has been safely identified.
Carta 203
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A PC shuts down randomly only during heavy GPU work. What should you test?
Risposta
Test PSU capacity and condition, GPU power leads, temperature, and event logs. Peak load can expose weak power or cooling.
Carta 204
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Applications crash randomly after new RAM is installed. What should you do?
Risposta
Verify compatibility and slot placement, reseat the modules, and run a memory diagnostic. Test modules separately if needed.
Carta 205
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A computer develops an unusual fan or grinding noise. What should you inspect?
Risposta
Inspect fans, cables, pumps, drives, dust, and mounting points while the system is safely powered down when contact is possible.
Carta 206
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What should you do after finding a swollen motherboard capacitor?
Risposta
Disconnect power and replace the failed board or arrange qualified component service. Don't keep operating a board with a visibly failing capacitor.
Carta 207
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A PC loses its date and time whenever it is unplugged. What is the likely cause?
Risposta
A weak motherboard coin-cell battery. Replace it with the specified type and restore any lost firmware settings.
Carta 208
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Firmware reports less RAM than is installed. What is the first corrective step?
Risposta
Power down, follow ESD precautions, and reseat the modules in the recommended slots. Then test compatibility, sticks, and slots methodically.
Carta 209
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A newly installed CPU isn't recognized even though it fits the socket. What should you verify?
Risposta
Verify chipset and firmware support, CPU power, contact condition, seating, and cooling. Physical fit alone doesn't prove compatibility.
Carta 210
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How can you isolate a motherboard, CPU, RAM, or PSU no-POST fault?
Risposta
Reduce the system to minimum required hardware, confirm known-good power, and add components back one at a time.
Carta 211
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A storage controller shows a warning LED or audible alarm. What should you do first?
Risposta
Read the controller's exact status, preserve a current backup, and identify the affected drive or array before replacing anything.
Carta 212
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A hard drive clicks or grinds while reads fail. What should you prioritize?
Risposta
Stop unnecessary activity, preserve recoverable data, and replace the drive. Repeated testing can worsen a mechanical failure.
Carta 213
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A PC reports no bootable device. Which checks come first?
Risposta
Check firmware drive detection and boot order, then data and power connections. If the drive is detected, check its health before changing partitions.
Carta 214
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Files are corrupt or missing after storage errors. What should you do?
Risposta
Stop writes, preserve the affected media, restore from a verified backup when appropriate, and diagnose the drive, controller, memory, and filesystem cause.
Carta 215
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A controller reports an array missing. What should you avoid?
Risposta
Don't initialize or recreate it blindly. Check controller configuration, cabling, power, member detection, and the documented recovery path first.
Carta 216
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A drive has unusually long read and write times. What should you inspect?
Risposta
Inspect health data, errors, cable or link negotiation, free space, workload, temperature, and the storage interface.
Carta 217
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What should you do after a S.M.A.R.T. failure warning?
Risposta
Back up important data immediately and plan drive replacement. A health warning isn't something to clear and ignore.
Carta 218
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Firmware sees a drive, but the operating system doesn't. What should you check?
Risposta
Check OS storage management, drivers, bus support, partitions, and whether the disk is offline. Don't initialize a disk that may contain needed data.
Carta 219
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A RAID array is degraded after a member fails. What is the safe response?
Risposta
Confirm the failed member, verify backup, replace it through the controller's procedure, and monitor the rebuild. Don't remove a healthy member by guesswork.
Carta 220
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What can cause low storage IOPS even when capacity is available?
Risposta
A saturated or slow device, high queue depth, contention, thermal throttling, controller limits, or an unsuitable RAID layout.
Carta 221
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A monitor reports no signal. What should you check first?
Risposta
Check power, selected input, cable seating, adapter compatibility, and whether the computer is producing video.
Carta 222
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A projector is dim or shuts down intermittently. What should you inspect?
Risposta
Inspect the bulb or light source, filters, vents, temperature, brightness settings, room light, and service-life indicators.
Carta 223
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Text looks fuzzy or the desktop doesn't fit the screen. Which settings should you verify?
Risposta
Verify native resolution, scaling, aspect ratio, and any overscan setting. Then check cable and adapter quality.
Carta 224
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How do display burn-in and a dead pixel differ?
Risposta
Burn-in is persistent image retention across an area; a dead or stuck pixel is a fixed point defect. Confirm each with varied full-screen test images.
Carta 225
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A display flashes or flickers at a new refresh rate. What should you check?
Risposta
Check that the display, GPU, port, cable, resolution, and refresh rate combination is supported.
Carta 226
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A projected image is trapezoidal or distorted. What should you adjust?
Risposta
Correct projector position, angle, focus, and aspect ratio first; use keystone correction only as needed.
Carta 227
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A monitor shows incorrect colors. How do you isolate the cause?
Risposta
Check color settings and profiles, reseat or replace the cable, test another input or display, and inspect GPU output and drivers.
Carta 228
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Video works over HDMI or DisplayPort, but audio doesn't. What should you check?
Risposta
Check the OS playback device, application output, display volume, cable capability, and whether the adapter carries audio.
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A laptop LCD shows a faint image only under a flashlight. Which area is likely failing?
Risposta
The backlight or its power/driver path. The faint picture shows that image data still reaches the panel.
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A phone battery drains much faster than usual. What should you check first?
Risposta
Check battery health and recent screen, app, radio, and location use. Confirm the usage change before replacing hardware.
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A phone has a broken screen but still receives notifications. What should guide the repair?
Risposta
Back up accessible data, stop using sharp or exposed surfaces, and determine whether the glass, display, digitizer, or full assembly is replaceable.
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A phone won't charge and its port looks damaged. What is the safe first test?
Risposta
Inspect without metal tools, then try a known-good compatible cable and charger. Use wireless charging only if the device supports it and the battery is safe.
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A phone has poor or no connectivity. What should you isolate?
Risposta
Test Wi-Fi, cellular, and Bluetooth separately; check airplane mode, signal, account or SIM/eSIM state, and the specific network settings.
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A battery is pushing a mobile-device case apart. What should you do?
Risposta
Power it down, stop charging it, and arrange approved battery service. Don't press the case closed.
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A mobile device gets wet. Why should you avoid powering or charging it?
Risposta
Moisture can cause shorts and corrosion. Shut it down and follow the manufacturer's drying or service guidance.
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Touch input drifts or misses one area. What should you check?
Risposta
Check screen cleanliness and protectors, test calibration if supported, compare apps, and inspect the digitizer connection or damage.
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A phone slows down and overheats during light use. What should you inspect?
Risposta
Inspect battery health, storage pressure, updates, background apps, signal hunting, and possible malware. Stop use if heat is unsafe.
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A mobile device shows pop-ups and heavy data use after an untrusted install. What should you suspect?
Risposta
Malware or a harmful app. Disconnect as needed, preserve required evidence, remove it through the approved mobile-security process, and update the device.
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A mobile device can't install a new application. What should you check?
Risposta
Check free storage, OS and hardware compatibility, account or store access, network service, and MDM policy before bypassing any restriction.
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An active stylus doesn't work, but finger touch does. What should you check?
Risposta
Check stylus compatibility, charge or battery, pairing, tip, app support, and the device's active-digitizer settings.
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Users report slow network speeds. What should you measure before changing hardware?
Risposta
Measure negotiated link rate, throughput, utilization, errors, signal, channel use, and server or ISP performance to locate the bottleneck.
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Wi-Fi disconnects intermittently in one area. What should you inspect?
Risposta
Inspect signal strength, roaming, interference, channel plan, access-point placement, client drivers, and power-saving behavior.
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A client reports limited connectivity. Which layers should you check in order?
Risposta
Check physical or wireless link, IP address and mask, gateway, DHCP, DNS, and upstream reachability.
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A user repeatedly fails network authentication. What should you verify?
Risposta
Verify the account and credentials, time, certificate, authentication method, network policy, and whether the user or device is authorized.
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Which tools help locate high latency?
Risposta
Ping compares delay and loss; traceroute shows the path by hops. Test several destinations to separate a local, provider, and destination issue.
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What signs point to external wireless interference?
Risposta
Signal quality or throughput drops despite adequate strength, often near a device or at certain times. A spectrum or Wi-Fi analyzer helps confirm it.
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A switch port repeatedly changes between up and down. What should you isolate?
Risposta
Isolate the patch cable, wall run, endpoint NIC, and switch port. Review port logs and test the cable for a port-flapping cause.
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A wired PC has no link light. Where should troubleshooting start?
Risposta
At the cable, connector, NIC, and switch port. Changing IP settings can't repair a missing physical link.
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VoIP sounds choppy even though average bandwidth is adequate. Which network condition should you measure?
Risposta
Jitter, along with latency and packet loss. QoS and congestion control may help after the impaired path is identified.
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Internet access drops for every local client, then returns. Where should you look?
Risposta
Check the shared WAN path: the router's WAN link, modem or ONT, provider service, power, and logs. Independent failures across every local client at once are unlikely.
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A host can reach an internet IP but not a website name. What is the likely fault?
Risposta
DNS resolution. Check the configured resolver and test a direct lookup.
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A PC receives a 169.254.x.x address. What should you test next?
Risposta
Test its link and the path to DHCP. The APIPA address shows that normal lease configuration failed.
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Two hosts report an address conflict. What should you inspect?
Risposta
Inspect static assignments, DHCP reservations, and the lease scope for a duplicate IP address.
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A PC on a new switch port can't reach its department resources. What should you verify?
Risposta
Verify the access VLAN, then its routing and policy. A good physical link on the wrong VLAN still provides the wrong network access.
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A PoE camera has network pairs but no power. What should you check?
Risposta
Check the injector or switch standard, port state, total power budget, cable quality, and camera power requirement.
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Only one PC lacks network access while nearby systems work. What should you compare?
Risposta
Compare its link, IP settings, DNS, authentication, proxy or VPN state, and local firewall with a working peer.
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A printed page has a line in the same place every time. What should you inspect?
Risposta
Inspect the cartridge, printhead, drum, scanner glass, and approved cleaning path for contamination or damage, based on printer type.
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A printer produces garbled characters. What should you verify?
Risposta
Verify the driver and print language, cable or network path, firmware, and source document. Cancel the bad job before retrying.
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A printer reports a paper jam. What is the safe response?
Risposta
Stop the job, follow the documented paper path, remove paper in the specified direction, and check for scraps or damaged rollers.
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Several print jobs remain pending after the printer recovers. What should you do?
Risposta
Cancel failed jobs as appropriate, verify printer status and connectivity, restart the print service if needed, then send one small test page.
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Printed pages are uniformly faded. What should you check?
Risposta
Check toner or ink level, density or quality settings, cartridge condition, and the correct media setting.
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A printer makes a grinding noise. What should you do?
Risposta
Stop the job and inspect for jammed media, foreign objects, damaged gears, or a misseated cartridge or maintenance part.
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Paper won't feed or several sheets feed together. Which parts should you inspect?
Risposta
Inspect pickup rollers, the separation pad, feeder, paper condition, tray guides, and load limit.
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A document prints in the wrong orientation. What should you check?
Risposta
Check portrait or landscape settings in the application and driver, then confirm paper size and any device default.
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What commonly causes speckles across printed pages?
Risposta
Loose toner, ink contamination, a dirty print path, or a damaged cartridge or drum. Use the printer type and repeating pattern to narrow it.
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A finisher won't staple or punch pages. What should you inspect?
Risposta
Inspect the staple cartridge or jam, punch waste bin, finisher seating, supported paper, and driver job settings.
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A printer doesn't recognize a loaded tray. What should you check?
Risposta
Check tray seating, paper guides and size sensors, media settings, firmware, and driver configuration.
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A network printer shows Ready but clients can't reach it. What should you test?
Risposta
Test its link, IP configuration, address conflict, VLAN and routing path, print port, and firewall access.
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A laser page shows a repeated faint image. Which area should you inspect?
Risposta
Inspect the imaging drum and fuser for ghosting. The repeat distance can help the service guide identify the rotating part.
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A print queue is frozen and won't process a test page. What should you do?
Risposta
Clear the blocked job safely, restart the spooler or print service, verify disk and printer connectivity, then submit one small test.
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Which desktop OS is the usual choice for broad business software and Active Directory integration?
Risposta
Windows. It has the widest support for common business applications and native integration with Microsoft domain services.
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When is a clean OS installation preferable to an in-place upgrade?
Risposta
Choose a clean install when you need a fresh system or the existing installation is unreliable. It removes installed apps and settings, so back up user data first.
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Which Windows command lists files and folders in the current directory?
Risposta
dir. Use cd when you need to change the current directory.
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Which Windows tool gives a quick view of running processes, startup apps, users, services, and performance?
Risposta
Task Manager. It is the first stop for a quick process or resource check.
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What should you check before moving a user between desktop or mobile operating systems?
Risposta
Check application, peripheral, file-format, and account compatibility first. A supported OS is still a bad fit if the user's required tools or data won't work on it.
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How should you choose between a public and private Windows network profile?
Risposta
Use Public on untrusted networks and Private only on trusted local networks. The profile changes discovery and firewall behavior.
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Which Windows command shows the current IP configuration?
Risposta
ipconfig. Add /all when you need details such as DHCP, DNS, gateway, and adapter addresses.
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What is the main benefit of deploying an OS image?
Risposta
It applies a prepared, consistent system build to multiple devices. The image still needs compatible drivers, licensing, and post-deployment updates.
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Which console should you open to investigate recorded application, security, or system errors?
Risposta
Event Viewer. Filter by the relevant time, source, and event level instead of treating every warning as the cause.
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Which Windows file system supports permissions, encryption, compression, and large local volumes?
Risposta
NTFS. It is the standard Windows file system when you need access controls and other full desktop features.
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Which Windows edition fits a basic home PC that does not need business management features?
Risposta
Windows Home. It covers normal consumer use but lacks several business features found in Pro and Enterprise.
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What do the common macOS application forms .dmg, .pkg, and .app represent?
Risposta
A .dmg is a mountable disk image, a .pkg runs an installer, and an .app is an application bundle. Remove software with its supported process, especially when it installed system components.
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Which boot approach lets a technician start an installer delivered by a deployment server?
Risposta
Network boot, commonly PXE. The client firmware and network must support it, and the deployment service must be reachable.
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Which command is the quickest basic test of IP reachability to another host?
Risposta
ping. A failed ping is only a clue because the host or firewall may block echo traffic.
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Which Windows tool creates partitions, assigns drive letters, and initializes disks?
Risposta
Disk Management. Confirm the disk and volume before making changes because some operations can destroy data.
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What is safer than disabling Windows Firewall when one application is blocked?
Risposta
Create the narrowest required application or port exception. Keep the firewall enabled and limit the rule to the needed profiles and traffic.
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What should you compare before installing a demanding application?
Risposta
Compare its OS, CPU, RAM, storage, graphics, VRAM, and peripheral requirements with the device. Check both minimum and practical workload needs.
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Which Windows edition is the usual minimum for joining a business domain and hosting Remote Desktop?
Risposta
Windows Pro. It also adds business features such as BitLocker management and Local Group Policy.
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Which Windows command queries DNS records for a name?
Risposta
nslookup. It helps distinguish name-resolution trouble from basic network reachability.
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Which macOS feature creates versioned backups for normal file and system recovery?
Risposta
Time Machine. Confirm the backup destination is available and test that needed files can actually be restored.
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What makes zero-touch deployment different from a normal remote installation?
Risposta
Zero-touch deployment minimizes hands-on setup after the device starts. Policies, applications, and identity configuration are applied automatically.
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When is exFAT usually a better removable-drive format than FAT32?
Risposta
Use exFAT when the drive must move between modern operating systems and hold files larger than FAT32's 4 GB per-file limit.
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Which values must be correct in a manual IPv4 client configuration?
Risposta
The IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server settings must fit the network. A wrong value can break local or internet access.
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How do FileVault and Keychain serve different security jobs on macOS?
Risposta
FileVault encrypts the startup disk; Keychain stores passwords, certificates, and keys. Neither replaces good account security or backups.
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What should you verify before booting an installer from USB media?
Risposta
Verify the media is trusted and bootable, then select the correct temporary boot device. Also confirm the firmware mode matches the planned partition style.
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Which Windows console is best for checking a device's driver status or hardware error code?
Risposta
Device Manager. It shows detected hardware, driver details, disabled devices, and device error codes.
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When is Windows Enterprise a better fit than Pro?
Risposta
Use Enterprise for centrally managed organizations that need its additional security, deployment, and control features. It is licensed for organizational use rather than a typical retail PC.
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How does a domain differ from a workgroup for Windows client management?
Risposta
A domain provides centralized identity and policy; a workgroup manages accounts separately on each PC. Shared resources must match the chosen model.
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Which command shows active network connections and listening ports on Windows?
Risposta
netstat. Use its documented options to include process IDs or numeric addresses when needed.
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Which Windows tool runs a program or script on a trigger or schedule?
Risposta
Task Scheduler. Use it for defined triggers such as a time, startup, sign-in, or event.
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What must be assigned before a user can legally use many cloud productivity apps?
Risposta
The correct service license. Installation alone does not grant an account access to licensed features.
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What do /Applications, /Users, /Library, and /System hold on macOS?
Risposta
They hold installed apps, user home folders, shared support data, and protected system components, respectively. A user's own Library sits inside that user's home folder.
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What path format directly identifies a Windows network share?
Risposta
A UNC path such as \\server\share. A mapped drive gives that share a drive letter for convenience.
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Why can a 32-bit-only dependency block an otherwise capable 64-bit system?
Risposta
The application may rely on an unsupported 32-bit component or driver. Confirm the complete dependency chain, not just the CPU architecture.
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Which file systems are common on Linux desktops and servers?
Risposta
ext4 and XFS. Both are Linux-native choices; support for features and repair tools depends on the distribution and workload.
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What workload is Windows Pro for Workstations aimed at?
Risposta
High-end professional hardware and demanding workloads. It adds support intended for workstation-class processors, memory, and storage features.
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Why synchronize identity between an organization and a cloud productivity service?
Risposta
It keeps user accounts and access aligned with the organization's identity source. Provisioning and removal can then follow the user's lifecycle.
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When should you try a repair installation or recovery environment?
Risposta
Use it when the current OS is damaged but preserving the installation is still reasonable. Back up recoverable data before making larger changes.
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Which Windows command traces the router hops toward a destination?
Risposta
tracert. Use pathping when you also need sampled latency and loss information across the route.
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Why should mobile apps come from the platform's trusted store or an approved enterprise source?
Risposta
Trusted sources provide stronger publisher, signing, and review checks. Sideloading from an unknown source raises the risk of a malicious or altered app.
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What is distinctive about a Windows N edition?
Risposta
It omits certain built-in media technologies. An application that depends on those components may need Microsoft's media feature package.
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Which partition style is the normal choice for a modern UEFI system?
Risposta
GPT. It supports modern UEFI booting, large disks, and more partitions than legacy MBR.
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What should you confirm when setting up a cloud storage sync folder?
Risposta
Confirm the account, selected folders, local disk impact, sharing rules, and whether files remain available offline.
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When does a dedicated GPU matter more than integrated graphics?
Risposta
It matters when the application requires more graphics performance or dedicated VRAM than the integrated GPU can provide.
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How do chmod and chown differ on Linux?
Risposta
chmod changes permission bits; chown changes file ownership. Verify the target and use elevated rights only when required.
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Which command checks a Windows volume's file-system structure for errors?
Risposta
chkdsk. Review its options before requesting repairs because a repair may need exclusive access or a restart.
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What is the difference between partitioning and formatting a drive?
Risposta
Partitioning defines logical regions on the drive; formatting creates a file system inside a partition. Both can affect existing data, so confirm the target first.
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What does a client VPN connection provide?
Risposta
It creates an encrypted path to a remote private network. The user still needs valid authentication and authorization for its resources.
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Which Linux package managers are common on Debian-based and Fedora-based systems?
Risposta
apt is common on Debian and Ubuntu; dnf is common on Fedora and related systems. Use authorized sudo elevation for administrative package changes instead of routine root login.
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When should you use Performance Monitor instead of only Task Manager?
Risposta
Use Performance Monitor when you need counters collected over time. Task Manager is better for a quick live snapshot.
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Which Windows command-line tool manages disks, partitions, and volumes?
Risposta
diskpart. Select and verify the exact disk before any destructive command.
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Which firmware and security components are central to Windows 11 hardware eligibility?
Risposta
UEFI with Secure Boot capability and a supported TPM 2.0 are central requirements. The processor, RAM, and storage must also meet Microsoft's current requirements.
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What should you verify before a mobile OS upgrade?
Risposta
Check device support, free storage, battery or power, network access, app compatibility, and a current backup.
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Why mark a Windows connection as metered?
Risposta
It tells Windows to limit some background transfers on a connection with a data cap or high cost. Updates and cloud sync may behave differently.
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Which file system is designed for current Apple storage devices?
Risposta
APFS. It is Apple's modern file system for macOS and other Apple platforms.
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Which Linux commands distinguish free filesystem space from a directory's space use?
Risposta
df reports filesystem free space; du estimates space used by files and directories. Use both when tracking down a full disk.
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What belongs in an OS upgrade preflight check?
Risposta
Back up user data and settings, then verify hardware, applications, drivers, storage, licensing, and the supported upgrade path.
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Why should Windows show known file extensions during support work?
Risposta
Visible extensions make file types easier to verify and help expose misleading names such as invoice.pdf.exe.
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What is the safest source for an application installer?
Risposta
Use the vendor's trusted store or official download channel. Verify the publisher, signature, or published hash when available.
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Which Windows command is built for reliable folder copying with restart and mirror options?
Risposta
robocopy. Treat mirror or purge options carefully because they can delete destination files that are absent from the source.
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Why should you verify the supported Windows edition upgrade path before starting?
Risposta
Not every source edition can upgrade directly to every target edition. An unsupported path may require a clean install instead.
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Which Windows tool helps isolate startup problems by controlling boot and service options?
Risposta
System Configuration (msconfig). Use selective startup for diagnosis, then restore the intended configuration after testing.
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What should a technician test before rolling out cloud videoconferencing?
Risposta
Test supported devices, camera and microphone permissions, network capacity, sign-in, and any organization policy.
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What does an operating system reaching end of life mean for support?
Risposta
The vendor no longer provides normal support or security updates. Plan a supported upgrade or replacement instead of treating the old system as safe indefinitely.
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Which Windows command checks protected system files and replaces damaged copies?
Risposta
sfc /scannow. Run it from an elevated terminal and review the result before deciding the next repair step.
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What is the purpose of a Microsoft Management Console snap-in?
Risposta
It adds a focused administrative tool to an MMC console. Event Viewer, Local Users and Groups, and Certificate Manager are common examples.
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What is the purpose of a mobile configuration profile?
Risposta
It applies managed settings such as accounts, certificates, restrictions, and security rules. Install profiles only from an authorized administrator or trusted provider.
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What is ReFS mainly designed to improve on supported Windows systems?
Risposta
Storage resilience and data integrity. ReFS is useful for supported data workloads, but it is not a universal replacement for an NTFS Windows boot volume.
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Why pilot a business application before a broad rollout?
Risposta
A pilot exposes device, network, workflow, licensing, and compatibility effects on a small group before they reach everyone.
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Why check sharing permissions before moving a document into a collaboration workspace?
Risposta
The move may change who can read or edit it. Confirm the intended audience, link settings, ownership, and version history.
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Which physical control stops a vehicle from driving close to a protected entrance?
Risposta
Bollards. They create a physical barrier while still allowing pedestrian access.
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What is the main sign that a message may be phishing?
Risposta
It tries to push you into revealing data, opening a file, or following a link under false pretenses. Verify the request through a known channel.
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What protects workstation data if a powered-off drive is stolen?
Risposta
Data-at-rest encryption, such as BitLocker or FileVault. Store recovery keys through an approved process.
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What is the first step in a suspected malware case?
Risposta
Investigate and verify the symptoms. Record what happened and rule out ordinary faults before declaring the system infected.
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What is the purpose of an access control vestibule?
Risposta
It allows one controlled door to close before the next opens. This reduces tailgating into a secure area.
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How do spear phishing and whaling differ from broad phishing?
Risposta
Spear phishing targets a specific person or group; whaling targets senior or high-value people. Both use tailored context to appear credible.
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Which password properties matter most for normal user accounts?
Risposta
Use long, unique passwords and store them in an approved password manager. Complexity and expiration rules should follow current organization policy.
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Why is a normal format not enough before transferring a drive with sensitive data?
Risposta
A standard format mainly rebuilds file-system structures and may leave recoverable data. Use an approved wipe, secure erase, encryption-key destruction, or physical destruction method.
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What makes a Trojan different from a computer virus?
Risposta
A Trojan pretends to be legitimate so the user installs or runs it. A virus attaches its code to a host file or boot area and replicates when that code runs.
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Why combine a badge reader with a biometric check at a sensitive door?
Risposta
The combination verifies something the person has and something they are. It is stronger than either factor alone.
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What does a BIOS or UEFI password protect?
Risposta
It limits unauthorized firmware changes or startup access. It does not encrypt files on the drive.
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Which phishing names apply to voice calls, text messages, and malicious QR codes?
Risposta
Vishing uses voice, smishing uses SMS or messaging, and QR phishing uses a code to hide the destination. Verify the request before acting.
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What should you do once a malware infection is reasonably confirmed?
Risposta
Quarantine the device from networks and shared storage. Preserve any evidence required by policy while limiting further spread.
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Which malware hides deeply in a system to preserve privileged access?
Risposta
A rootkit. Because it can conceal processes or changes, trusted offline scanning or reimaging may be required.
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What simple action protects an unattended signed-in workstation?
Risposta
Lock the screen. Use an automatic timeout as a backup, and log off when the session is no longer needed.
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What do cameras, guards, alarms, lighting, and motion sensors contribute to physical security?
Risposta
They deter, detect, record, or respond to unauthorized activity. They work best as layers rather than a single control.
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What attack occurs when someone watches a user enter sensitive information?
Risposta
Shoulder surfing. Privacy screens, careful positioning, and awareness reduce the risk.
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How should you verify a browser download before running it?
Risposta
Use a trusted source, confirm the publisher or signature, and compare a published hash when available. A matching hash proves integrity, not that the publisher is trustworthy.
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What does a computer virus need in order to spread?
Risposta
A virus attaches to a host file or boot area and spreads when that infected code runs. A boot-sector virus targets startup data.
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When is a secure erase preferable to physical destruction?
Risposta
Use a verified secure erase when the storage device will be reused and the method fits its media type. Validate the result before reassignment.
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How does tailgating differ from impersonation?
Risposta
Tailgating follows an authorized person into a restricted area; impersonation claims a false identity to gain trust or access.
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What does the principle of least privilege require?
Risposta
Give an account only the access needed for its current job, for only as long as needed. Review and remove unnecessary rights.
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What does spoofing change to make a message, host, or caller look trusted?
Risposta
It forges identifying information such as an address, name, number, or source. Verify identity through a separate trusted signal.
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Which Wi-Fi security protocol is the preferred modern choice when all devices support it?
Risposta
WPA3. Use its strongest supported mode and a strong credential or enterprise authentication.
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How does a DDoS attack differ from a DoS attack?
Risposta
A DDoS attack uses many distributed sources; a DoS attack may come from one source. Both aim to exhaust availability.
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What assumption drives a Zero Trust access decision?
Risposta
No user, device, or network location is trusted automatically. Verify identity, device state, context, and authorization for each access decision.
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Which physical methods make a hard drive unusable?
Risposta
Approved shredding or drilling can destroy the platters and mechanism. Follow safety, environmental, and evidence-handling rules.
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How do account lockout and account expiration solve different problems?
Risposta
Lockout slows repeated failed sign-ins; expiration ends access after a defined date. Set both according to business policy.
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Which malware categories secretly monitor a user's activity?
Risposta
Spyware collects activity or data; a keylogger records input; stalkerware is used for covert surveillance of a person.
Carta 370
Domanda
What wireless threat presents a convincing fake access point?
Risposta
An evil twin. Users may connect to it because its network name resembles a trusted one.
Carta 371
Domanda
What are the first security changes on a new SOHO router?
Risposta
Change default administrator credentials, update firmware, and save a known-good configuration. Use a unique management password.
Carta 372
Domanda
What should you do when a browser reports an invalid certificate on a sensitive site?
Risposta
Stop and verify the address, system time, and certificate details. Do not bypass the warning for sign-in or payment data.
Carta 373
Domanda
What does an access control list decide?
Risposta
An ACL states which identities or traffic are allowed or denied on a resource. Keep entries specific and review inherited rules.
Carta 374
Domanda
Which malware blocks access to data and demands payment?
Risposta
Ransomware. Isolate the device quickly and recover from known-good backups rather than assuming payment will restore data.
Carta 375
Domanda
How should router management access be exposed?
Risposta
Allow it only from trusted interfaces and secure protocols, ideally from the local network. Place the router where unauthorized people cannot reset or replace it.
Carta 376
Domanda
How should Windows restore points be handled during an approved malware-removal workflow?
Risposta
Temporarily disable System Restore when the procedure calls for it, then re-enable it and create a clean restore point after remediation.
Carta 377
Domanda
Which built-in accounts or credentials should be changed or disabled during setup?
Risposta
Disable the guest account when unused and replace default administrator names or passwords where policy requires it. Never leave vendor defaults active.
Carta 378
Domanda
What happens in an on-path attack?
Risposta
The attacker positions themselves between communicating parties to observe or alter traffic. Strong certificate validation and encryption help prevent it.
Carta 379
Domanda
How do browser patches and extension controls work together?
Risposta
Patches fix browser flaws; extension controls reduce code from untrusted add-ons. Keep only approved, necessary extensions.
Carta 380
Domanda
How should a guest wireless network be separated from trusted devices?
Risposta
Use a separate guest network with strong encryption and client isolation. Do not grant it access to internal files or management interfaces.
Carta 381
Domanda
Why disable AutoRun and unused services?
Risposta
They remove automatic execution paths and unnecessary attack surface. Confirm a service is not required before disabling it.
Carta 382
Domanda
Which storage media can degaussing sanitize?
Risposta
Magnetic media such as compatible hard drives and tapes, but only with an approved degausser rated for that exact medium. Flash storage such as SSDs cannot be sanitized this way. A drive becoming unusable does not prove its data was sanitized; follow and validate the approved procedure.
Carta 383
Domanda
Why update anti-malware tools before the main removal scan?
Risposta
Current definitions and engines can recognize newer threats. Scan in a safer environment, such as Safe Mode or approved recovery media, when appropriate.
Carta 384
Domanda
What makes authentication multifactor?
Risposta
It uses factors from at least two different categories, such as a password plus a hardware token or biometric. Two passwords are still one factor type.
Carta 385
Domanda
Which encryption choice is appropriate for a WPA2 network?
Risposta
AES-based CCMP. Avoid selecting older TKIP just to keep obsolete clients connected.
Carta 386
Domanda
What is the basic endpoint patching sequence?
Risposta
Inventory supported systems, deploy tested OS and application updates, verify success, and remediate failures. Endpoint security definitions need updates too.
Carta 387
Domanda
Why should daily work use a standard account instead of an administrator account?
Risposta
A standard account limits what mistakes or malware can change. Elevate only the specific approved task through UAC or Run as administrator.
Carta 388
Domanda
When is reimaging safer than continuing to clean an infected PC?
Risposta
Reimage when trust cannot be restored, the malware is deeply embedded, or policy requires a known-good build. Restore only verified clean data.
Carta 389
Domanda
Why is TKIP a poor choice for a new wireless network?
Risposta
TKIP is a legacy protocol with known security limits. Replace incompatible clients and use WPA2-AES or WPA3.
Carta 390
Domanda
When is incineration an acceptable data-destruction method?
Risposta
Only through an authorized facility that can handle the material safely and meet legal and environmental requirements.
Carta 391
Domanda
What does private browsing protect on a shared computer?
Risposta
It reduces local history and cookie retention after the session. It does not hide activity from the network or service, so sign out and clear sensitive data as policy requires.
Carta 392
Domanda
How does a dictionary attack differ from a general brute-force attack?
Risposta
A dictionary attack tries likely words and known password patterns; brute force systematically tries possibilities. Long, unique passwords and rate limits make both harder.
Carta 393
Domanda
How do SSO and SAML commonly work together?
Risposta
SSO lets one sign-in reach multiple services; SAML can carry trusted authentication claims between an identity provider and a service.
Carta 394
Domanda
Why disable UPnP and unused inbound ports when they are not required?
Risposta
They can create unnecessary paths into the network. Open only the specific service and source access the business needs.
Carta 395
Domanda
What symptom often points to an unauthorized cryptominer?
Risposta
Unexplained sustained CPU or GPU use, heat, fan noise, or power consumption. Confirm the process before removal.
Carta 396
Domanda
What should an outsourced destruction vendor provide?
Risposta
A traceable certificate of destruction or recycling tied to the assets. Confirm the vendor and chain of custody before release.
Carta 397
Domanda
When is just-in-time privileged access safer than a standing admin account?
Risposta
It grants elevated rights only for an approved task and limited time. Privileged access management can control and record that elevation.
Carta 398
Domanda
What follow-up checks belong after malware removal?
Risposta
Run updated scans, patch the system, schedule ongoing scans and updates, and verify normal behavior before reconnecting fully.
Carta 399
Domanda
Which input flaws commonly enable SQL injection and cross-site scripting?
Risposta
SQL injection reaches a database through unsafe query input; XSS injects script into content a browser renders. Use parameterized queries for SQL and context-aware output encoding for browser content.
Carta 400
Domanda
Which mobile controls help after a managed phone is lost?
Risposta
A locator, remote lock or wipe, device encryption, and a current remote backup. Test enrollment before the device disappears.
Carta 401
Domanda
Which control is designed to detect or block sensitive data from leaving approved boundaries?
Risposta
Data loss prevention, or DLP. It applies rules to data in use, in motion, or at rest according to policy.
Carta 402
Domanda
When is port forwarding appropriate on a small network?
Risposta
Use it only for an approved service that must receive inbound traffic. Prefer a screened subnet or other isolation for exposed systems, and document the narrow rule.
Carta 403
Domanda
Why can fileless malware be hard to detect?
Risposta
It relies heavily on memory and legitimate system tools instead of leaving a normal executable on disk. Behavior monitoring is especially useful.
Carta 404
Domanda
Why are unpatched, end-of-life, or unmanaged BYOD systems a security risk?
Risposta
They may lack current fixes, controls, or visibility. Enforce support and access policy instead of assuming a connected device is safe.
Carta 405
Domanda
What must guide disposal of batteries, storage devices, and electronics?
Risposta
Applicable data-retention, privacy, environmental, and recycling rules. Record asset disposition according to policy.
Carta 406
Domanda
What should an email security gateway do before a message reaches the user?
Risposta
Filter suspicious senders, links, attachments, and spoofing signals. Users should still verify unusual requests through a known channel.
Carta 407
Domanda
Which service commonly provides centralized authentication for enterprise Wi-Fi?
Risposta
RADIUS. It validates users or devices against a central identity source; TACACS+ is more commonly associated with network-device administration.
Carta 408
Domanda
How does MDM reduce risk on BYOD and corporate-owned mobile devices?
Risposta
MDM applies profiles, screen-lock rules, updates, app controls, and remote actions. The policy should clearly separate company requirements from personal privacy.
Carta 409
Domanda
How does a potentially unwanted program differ from clearly malicious malware?
Risposta
A PUP may be installed with nominal consent but still adds unwanted behavior, such as aggressive ads or browser changes. Remove it through approved tools and review bundled installers.
Carta 410
Domanda
What should the technician explain to the user after a malware incident?
Risposta
Explain the likely entry point and practical prevention steps, such as safer links, trusted downloads, updates, and prompt reporting.
Carta 411
Domanda
What is the first useful action after a Windows blue-screen crash?
Risposta
Record the stop code and recent changes, then check relevant logs and dumps. Do not replace hardware from the blue screen alone.
Carta 412
Domanda
What should you try first when one mobile app will not launch?
Risposta
Force-close the app, reopen it, and check for an update. If the problem persists, restart the device and verify the app still supports the OS.
Carta 413
Domanda
What should you do after finding an unapproved app already installed on a managed phone?
Risposta
Document it and follow policy to block or remove it through the approved mobile-management process. Do not open it for testing; if compromise is plausible, contain the phone and escalate before wiping evidence.
Carta 414
Domanda
What should you do if a possibly infected PC suddenly cannot reach the network?
Risposta
Check ordinary link and IP status, but keep the PC isolated if compromise is plausible. Do not weaken the firewall just to restore access.
Carta 415
Domanda
Where should you start when Windows feels broadly slow?
Risposta
Check Task Manager for CPU, memory, disk, and startup pressure. Correlate the bottleneck with recent apps, updates, storage, and temperature.
Carta 416
Domanda
How should you handle a mobile app that repeatedly crashes while in use?
Risposta
Reproduce the trigger, free needed resources, update the app and OS, and clear supported app cache or reinstall after protecting its data.
Carta 417
Domanda
Why should developer mode be disabled on a normal user's mobile device?
Risposta
It can expose debugging, installation, or control paths that normal operation does not need. Enable it only for an authorized task and turn it off afterward.
Carta 418
Domanda
What do unfamiliar security alerts on the Windows desktop require?
Risposta
Verify which installed product or process created them. Capture the message and avoid clicking it until its source is trusted.
Carta 419
Domanda
What should you try when Windows reaches recovery but not the normal desktop?
Risposta
Use Startup Repair or Safe Mode to isolate the boot problem. Back up accessible data before risky repair steps.
Carta 420
Domanda
What commonly blocks a mobile app update?
Risposta
Low storage, poor connectivity, account or store issues, device policy, or OS incompatibility. Read the exact store error before changing settings.
Carta 421
Domanda
What security boundary changes when a phone is rooted or jailbroken?
Risposta
Platform protections and app isolation may be bypassed. Treat the device as noncompliant and restore it through an approved process.
Carta 422
Domanda
How can you recognize a fake antivirus warning?
Risposta
It often uses urgent claims, an unfamiliar brand, or a demand to click, call, or pay. Open the approved security tool directly instead of using the alert.
Carta 423
Domanda
What does a firmware message saying no operating system was found suggest checking first?
Risposta
Check whether the system drive is detected and first in the intended boot order. Then inspect its connection, partition, and boot data.
Carta 424
Domanda
What should you verify when a mobile app will not install?
Risposta
Verify the source, device and OS compatibility, free storage, account licensing, and management policy.
Carta 425
Domanda
What clues suggest a mobile app is spoofing a legitimate one?
Risposta
A mismatched publisher, unusual icon or name, excessive permissions, unexpected sign-in, or an unofficial source. Verify the real listing before entering credentials.
Carta 426
Domanda
What can unexplained renamed or missing personal files indicate?
Risposta
Malware, ransomware, account misuse, sync trouble, or storage failure are possible. Isolate the scope and preserve evidence before recovery attempts.
Carta 427
Domanda
What evidence helps separate thermal shutdowns from power failures?
Risposta
Review temperatures, fan operation, vents, power events, and whether the failure follows load. Test one likely cause at a time.
Carta 428
Domanda
Where should you start with a generally slow phone or tablet?
Risposta
Check free storage, active downloads, background apps, battery condition, and pending updates. Restart before considering a reset.
Carta 429
Domanda
What should unexplained high mobile network traffic make you inspect?
Risposta
Inspect per-app data use, recent installations, cloud sync, hotspots, and management alerts. Isolate the device if malicious traffic is plausible.
Carta 430
Domanda
What does sudden inability to open many files suggest checking?
Risposta
Check extensions, ransom notes, permissions, storage health, and backup status. Widespread encryption may indicate ransomware.
Carta 431
Domanda
What should you inspect when a Windows service will not start?
Risposta
Check its startup type, dependencies, logon account, permissions, and Event Viewer message. Fix the recorded cause rather than repeatedly forcing a start.
Carta 432
Domanda
A mobile OS update downloads but fails verification or installation. What should you try before resetting the device?
Risposta
Record the exact error and check free storage first. Then use the OS vendor's supported controls to remove the incomplete update and download a fresh copy with reliable power and a stable network connection; use recovery only if the normal updater still fails.
Carta 433
Domanda
How can security trouble cause degraded mobile response time?
Risposta
A malicious or unwanted app may consume CPU, storage, or network resources. Compare resource use with recent apps before removing anything.
Carta 434
Domanda
Where should you investigate unwanted Windows notifications?
Risposta
Check notification settings, browser site permissions, startup apps, and recently installed software. Remove the source rather than only muting the symptom.
Carta 435
Domanda
How should you isolate an application that keeps crashing?
Risposta
Confirm the scope, reproduce it, check logs, update the app, and test its plug-ins or profile. Reinstall only after preserving needed settings and data.
Carta 436
Domanda
How do you find the likely cause of sudden mobile battery drain?
Risposta
Review battery usage by app and system feature, then compare with recent updates, signal conditions, screen use, and battery health.
Carta 437
Domanda
What should you check after an unexpected mobile data-limit notification?
Risposta
Review per-app usage and the billing period, then inspect background sync, hotspot use, updates, and unknown apps.
Carta 438
Domanda
Why can repeated OS update failures be a security clue?
Risposta
Malware may block updates, though storage, network, or service faults are also common. Investigate the exact error and other symptoms before deciding.
Carta 439
Domanda
What should a low-memory warning lead you to inspect?
Risposta
Inspect memory pressure, runaway processes, page-file health, and workload requirements. Closing one app may help briefly but does not explain repeated warnings.
Carta 440
Domanda
What is a useful first isolation step for random mobile reboots?
Risposta
Remove or disable the most recent app or configuration change, update the OS, and check storage and temperature. Back up before a reset.
Carta 441
Domanda
What security setting can cause limited mobile internet access even with a good signal?
Risposta
A bad VPN, proxy, DNS, content-filtering, or management profile can restrict traffic. Compare the configuration with approved policy.
Carta 442
Domanda
What is a useful first check for random browser pop-ups?
Risposta
Inspect site-notification permissions, extensions, startup pages, and recently installed software. Do not click inside the pop-up.
Carta 443
Domanda
What is a sensible first response to a USB controller resource warning?
Risposta
Disconnect nonessential USB devices, remove unpowered hubs, and check Device Manager. Then update the controller or chipset driver if the evidence supports it.
Carta 444
Domanda
What is the normal first fix for a Bluetooth pairing problem?
Risposta
Confirm both devices are discoverable and compatible, then forget the old pairing and pair again. Check distance, battery, and interference.
Carta 445
Domanda
What should you do if normal connectivity checks pass but a phone still has no internet after a suspicious app install?
Risposta
Isolate the phone, remove or quarantine the suspicious app through the approved process, and inspect VPN, proxy, DNS, and profile changes.
Carta 446
Domanda
When does a browser certificate warning point to more than a bad website?
Risposta
Warnings across several known-good sites can indicate wrong system time, interception, a proxy, or a trust-store problem. Compare on a trusted network and device.
Carta 447
Domanda
What should you do when instability begins right after a driver update?
Risposta
Roll back or replace that driver with a known-good supported version. Confirm stability before changing another component.
Carta 448
Domanda
What should you check when one phone cannot join a known Wi-Fi network?
Risposta
Confirm the network and password, toggle Wi-Fi, forget and rejoin the network, then compare with another device before resetting network settings.
Carta 449
Domanda
What commonly causes a sudden flood of ads across a mobile device?
Risposta
Adware or a PUP is likely, especially after a recent install. Identify the responsible app instead of tapping the ads.
Carta 450
Domanda
What settings should you inspect when browser searches redirect unexpectedly?
Risposta
Inspect the default search provider, home page, extensions, proxy, DNS, and hosts file. Record unauthorized changes before correcting them.
Carta 451
Domanda
How can you test whether a slow Windows sign-in is tied to one user profile?
Risposta
Sign in with a known-good local profile and compare. Then inspect profile corruption, startup items, scripts, and redirected resources.
Carta 452
Domanda
What should you check when NFC works only intermittently?
Risposta
Confirm NFC is enabled, unlock the device if required, align the NFC areas closely, and remove a case that may block the signal.
Carta 453
Domanda
How should you respond to a mobile pop-up claiming the device is infected?
Risposta
Treat it as a likely fake security warning. Do not tap its button; close the source, inspect recent apps or browser data, and scan with approved tools.
Carta 454
Domanda
What should you compare when mobile data fails but Wi-Fi works?
Risposta
Check airplane mode, cellular enablement, signal, data limits, SIM or eSIM state, carrier settings, and any provider outage.
Carta 455
Domanda
What is the priority when personal files appear to have leaked from a mobile device?
Risposta
Contain the device and affected accounts, preserve relevant evidence, and follow the incident process. Revoke exposed sessions or credentials from a trusted device.
Carta 456
Domanda
Why might a mobile screen refuse to rotate?
Risposta
Rotation lock may be enabled, the app may not support that orientation, or a motion sensor may be stuck. Check the setting before hardware diagnosis.
Carta 457
Domanda
What can unexpected mobile actions, permission prompts, or settings changes indicate?
Risposta
An unauthorized or compromised app may be acting on the device. Review recent installs, permissions, profiles, and account activity.
Carta 458
Domanda
What makes a browser extension suspicious?
Risposta
An unknown publisher, broad permissions, forced installation, hidden controls, or behavior unrelated to its stated job. Remove it through policy and inspect related changes.
Carta 459
Domanda
What should you verify when a Windows update repeatedly fails?
Risposta
Check free space, restart state, network access, update history, and the specific error. Apply the vendor's targeted repair steps for that code.
Carta 460
Domanda
When should you reset a mobile device during troubleshooting?
Risposta
Reset only after narrower fixes fail and a current backup exists. Confirm account credentials and management enrollment needed for recovery.
Carta 461
Domanda
What causes system time to drift repeatedly after shutdown?
Risposta
A failing CMOS battery is one possibility; a bad time source or synchronization setting is another. Check when the drift occurs before replacing anything.
Carta 462
Domanda
What PC settings can malware alter to reroute traffic?
Risposta
Proxy, DNS, browser, and hosts-file settings are common targets. Compare them with the approved network configuration.
Carta 463
Domanda
How can a clean boot help with a Windows startup problem?
Risposta
It starts Windows with a reduced set of nonessential services and startup items. Re-enable items in groups to identify the conflict.
Carta 464
Domanda
How should you troubleshoot a browser that has become much slower than the rest of the PC?
Risposta
Test without unneeded extensions, clear only appropriate cache data, check browser tasks, and compare a clean profile. Scan if the behavior is suspicious.
Carta 465
Domanda
What is the safest next step when several mobile security symptoms appear together?
Risposta
Disconnect or contain the device, document the symptoms, and escalate through the approved security process. Avoid wiping evidence unless the response plan authorizes it.
Carta 466
Domanda
Which details belong at the start of a support ticket?
Risposta
Record the user, device, contact method, affected service, and a clear issue description. Add the time and business impact when relevant.
Carta 467
Domanda
When is sfc /scannow a useful Windows repair step?
Risposta
Use it when protected system files may be damaged. Run it elevated and follow the result instead of assuming it fixes every boot or application fault.
Carta 468
Domanda
What should you do before running a repair that may change a failing Windows disk?
Risposta
Protect recoverable data first, then check drive health and file-system evidence. A repair tool is not a substitute for replacing failing storage.
Carta 469
Domanda
What is the right overall response to convincing PC security symptoms?
Risposta
Contain the system, document evidence, follow the malware or incident procedure, and restore trust with approved tools or a known-good image.
Carta 470
Domanda
What does a full backup contain?
Risposta
A full backup copies all selected data in that backup set. It is simple to restore but usually takes the most time and space to create.
Carta 471
Domanda
Where should a technician look for handling and disposal guidance for a chemical product?
Risposta
Use its current Safety Data Sheet and local policy. Follow the listed protective, spill, storage, and disposal instructions.
Carta 472
Domanda
What should a change request state before technical planning begins?
Risposta
State the purpose, scope, change type, affected systems, owner, and desired date. A clear request makes impact and approval review possible.
Carta 473
Domanda
What does active listening look like in a support conversation?
Risposta
Let the customer finish, ask focused questions, and restate the problem to confirm understanding. Avoid interrupting or jumping to a diagnosis.
Carta 474
Domanda
What does chain of custody record during an incident?
Risposta
It records who collected, handled, transferred, stored, and accessed evidence, with dates and purpose. This supports integrity and accountability.
Carta 475
Domanda
What makes a ticket issue description useful to another technician?
Risposta
It states expected and actual behavior, exact symptoms, scope, timing, and reproducible steps without guesses presented as facts.
Carta 476
Domanda
What does an incremental backup copy?
Risposta
It copies data changed since the most recent backup of any type. Backup runs are small, but recovery may need the last full plus every later incremental.
Carta 477
Domanda
How should a technician respond to an angry customer?
Risposta
Stay calm, acknowledge the impact, clarify the facts, and explain realistic next steps. Do not argue, blame, or dismiss the concern.
Carta 478
Domanda
Why does order of volatility matter when collecting incident evidence?
Risposta
More temporary data can disappear first. Follow the response plan to capture volatile information before less volatile storage when authorized.
Carta 479
Domanda
Which script type is native to traditional Windows batch command processing?
Risposta
A .bat file. VBScript uses .vbs for older Windows automation; review either script before running it with elevated rights.
Carta 480
Domanda
How do ventilation and dust control affect equipment reliability?
Risposta
Clear airflow removes heat; controlled dust cleanup prevents blocked vents and conductive buildup. Use equipment-safe compressed air or vacuums.
Carta 481
Domanda
How should severity and escalation be recorded?
Risposta
Tie severity to impact and urgency, then use the defined escalation level. Do not inflate it just to move the ticket faster.
Carta 482
Domanda
Why create a forensic copy instead of investigating the original drive directly?
Risposta
A verified copy preserves the original evidence and lets analysis proceed with less risk of alteration. Follow authorization and incident policy.
Carta 483
Domanda
When is RDP a suitable remote-access choice?
Risposta
Use RDP for an authorized Windows desktop session over a protected path. Limit exposed services, require strong authentication, and follow session policy.
Carta 484
Domanda
How should an ESD strap be used during internal PC work?
Risposta
Attach it to an approved ground point while working on powered-down equipment. Pair it with an ESD-safe work surface when available.
Carta 485
Domanda
What protection does a UPS add beyond a surge suppressor?
Risposta
A UPS provides temporary battery power and usually power conditioning, giving equipment time to ride through a brief outage or shut down safely.
Carta 486
Domanda
What should progress and resolution notes contain?
Risposta
Record tests, results, changes, timestamps, and the confirmed outcome. Another technician should be able to continue without repeating work.
Carta 487
Domanda
Which data categories usually require stricter handling and retention rules?
Risposta
Payment data, government identifiers, personally identifiable information, and healthcare data. Apply the relevant law, contract, and business policy.
Carta 488
Domanda
Which support tasks can AI assist without making the final decision?
Risposta
AI can help summarize tickets, draft user instructions, search approved knowledge, or suggest diagnostic paths. A technician must verify the result.
Carta 489
Domanda
What is the first electrical-safety step before repairing a PC?
Risposta
Shut it down and disconnect power. Follow the device's service procedure because some components can retain hazardous energy.
Carta 490
Domanda
How do SSH and VNC differ for remote support?
Risposta
SSH provides an encrypted command-line session; VNC shares a graphical desktop and needs its own secure transport and authentication configuration.
Carta 491
Domanda
How should a technician set expectations for a repair?
Risposta
Give a realistic timeline, explain options and dependencies, and send status updates when the estimate changes.
Carta 492
Domanda
Which script type gives Windows administrators structured access to system management?
Risposta
A PowerShell .ps1 script. Execution policy is not a malware boundary, so verify the source, signature, and contents.
Carta 493
Domanda
What does a differential backup copy?
Risposta
It copies data changed since the last full backup. Recovery normally needs the last full and the latest differential.
Carta 494
Domanda
Why do change plans need both a backup plan and a rollback plan?
Risposta
The backup protects data; the rollback returns the service to its prior state if the change fails. Define triggers and responsible staff before implementation.
Carta 495
Domanda
How should loose components be handled and stored?
Risposta
Hold boards by the edges, avoid contacts, and place them in antistatic packaging on an ESD-safe surface.
Carta 496
Domanda
Why monitor both temperature and humidity in an equipment room?
Risposta
Excess heat shortens component life; very low humidity raises static risk, while high humidity can cause condensation or corrosion.
Carta 497
Domanda
What is a synthetic full backup?
Risposta
It combines a previous full backup with later backup data to create a new full on the backup system. The source does not need to resend every file.
Carta 498
Domanda
How do an asset tag and a CMDB serve different support needs?
Risposta
The asset tag identifies the physical item; the CMDB records its configuration and relationships. Keep assignment, warranty, and licensing data current.
Carta 499
Domanda
What should a technician verify before installing licensed software?
Risposta
Verify a valid license, permitted user or device scope, and any EULA or DRM limits. Personal, corporate, perpetual, and open-source licenses grant different rights.
Carta 500
Domanda
Which script type is commonly used for shell automation on Linux and macOS?
Risposta
A .sh shell script. Its interpreter, permissions, quoting, and environment determine how it runs.
Carta 501
Domanda
How do GFS rotation and the 3-2-1 backup rule differ?
Risposta
GFS rotates daily, weekly, and monthly backup generations. The 3-2-1 rule keeps three copies on two different media/storage types, with one copy offsite. GFS organizes retention over time; 3-2-1 spreads copies across storage locations and failure modes.
Carta 502
Domanda
Which personal protective steps matter for lifting or dusty repair work?
Risposta
Use safe lifting technique and get help for heavy equipment; wear approved eye or breathing protection when the task creates those hazards.
Carta 503
Domanda
What does a VPN add to a remote-management session?
Risposta
It creates an encrypted network path to private resources. The remote tool still needs secure configuration, authentication, and least-privilege access.
Carta 504
Domanda
What policy questions should come before using AI at work?
Risposta
Check approved tools, allowed data, required disclosure, ownership rules, and whether the task permits AI assistance. Do not assume a public tool is approved.
Carta 505
Domanda
Why should a technician avoid jargon when speaking with a customer?
Risposta
Plain language helps the customer understand choices and give informed answers. Use a technical term only when it adds clarity, then explain it.
Carta 506
Domanda
What is the value of sandbox testing and peer review before a change?
Risposta
They expose technical mistakes and unexpected impact away from production. Record results and remaining risk.
Carta 507
Domanda
What are practical entry-level uses for scripts in support work?
Risposta
Scripts can collect information, remap drives, install approved apps, start updates, restart systems, or run backups consistently. Python .py and JavaScript .js files are common choices when the environment supports them.
Carta 508
Domanda
What is the benefit and main risk of an RMM platform?
Risposta
RMM can monitor and manage many endpoints centrally; compromise or misuse can reach many endpoints too. Protect the console with strong access controls, logging, and updates.
Carta 509
Domanda
How should a technician handle a confident AI answer?
Risposta
Verify it against trusted evidence. AI can hallucinate, carry bias, miss context, or present outdated information fluently.
Carta 510
Domanda
How do surges, brownouts, and blackouts differ?
Risposta
A surge is excess voltage, a brownout is reduced voltage, and a blackout is a loss of power. Match surge protection and UPS capacity to the equipment.
Carta 511
Domanda
What must you review before running an unfamiliar support script?
Risposta
Review its source, inputs, privileges, target systems, resource use, network actions, error handling, and rollback. A script can spread malware or change many systems quickly.
Carta 512
Domanda
How do an NDA and an acceptable use policy serve different purposes?
Risposta
An NDA restricts disclosure of protected information; an AUP defines permitted use of systems and data. Follow both along with incident and compliance rules.
Carta 513
Domanda
When should a normal change wait even if the technical work is ready?
Risposta
Wait for required approval and an allowed maintenance window. Respect change freezes unless the approved emergency process applies.
Carta 514
Domanda
Which support document should guide a repeatable task with an agreed method?
Risposta
Use the relevant SOP or checklist. Consult the SLA for service commitments and the knowledge base for reusable diagnosis or resolution guidance.
Carta 515
Domanda
What should a technician do if arriving late is unavoidable?
Risposta
Contact the customer promptly, give an honest revised time, and keep the new commitment. Document service provided and follow up as promised.
Carta 516
Domanda
What safety problems does good cable management prevent?
Risposta
It reduces trip hazards, blocked airflow, connector strain, and accidental disconnection. Keep cables clear of heat and emergency access.
Carta 517
Domanda
How do you know a backup is usable?
Risposta
Test restores on a defined schedule. Verify data integrity and practice both overwrite recovery and recovery to an alternative location.
Carta 518
Domanda
What closes a well-managed change?
Risposta
Verify the implementation, obtain required user acceptance, update documentation, and review the outcome. Trigger rollback if the defined failure criteria occur.
Carta 519
Domanda
How should a technician handle private material visible on a customer's device?
Risposta
View only what the task requires, avoid copying or discussing it, and follow privacy policy. Maintain professional appearance and conduct in the customer's environment.
Carta 520
Domanda
What data boundary applies when prompting a public AI service?
Risposta
Never send credentials or secrets to a public AI service. Keep private customer data, regulated data, proprietary code, and incident evidence out as well. An approved enterprise AI service is a separate case: use it only under the organization's data policy and contractual controls, and still never paste credentials or secrets.

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520 carte

CompTIA A+ 220-1201 & 220-1202 Flashcards: Core 1 and Core 2

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CompTIA A+ 220-1201 & 220-1202 Flashcards: Core 1 and Core 2

What the cards practice

Learning order

Labs and PBQs

Scope, provenance, and reuse

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