CompTIA A+ 220-1201 & 220-1202 Flashcards: Core 1 and Core 2

Cartes de ce paquet

1. Carte 1

   Question

   What is the safe response to a swollen mobile-device battery?

   Réponse

   Power the device off, disconnect external power, and isolate it for approved battery service. Don't charge, puncture, press, or keep using the battery.

2. Carte 2

   Question

   Which RAM form factor is common in serviceable laptops?

   Réponse

   A SO-DIMM. Match its DDR generation, capacity support, and other platform requirements before installation.

3. Carte 3

   Question

   What should you confirm before replacing laptop keys or a keyboard?

   Réponse

   Confirm the model's replaceable unit and service procedure. Some keys are individually serviceable; other designs require the keyboard or full top case.

4. Carte 4

   Question

   What protects data during a laptop HDD or SSD replacement?

   Réponse

   A verified backup and migration plan. Also match the replacement drive's interface, form factor, and supported capacity.

5. Carte 5

   Question

   How should tiny antenna leads be handled during wireless-card service?

   Réponse

   Label their positions, lift each connector straight up with the proper tool, and reconnect it to the marked terminal. Pulling the wire can damage the lead.

6. Carte 6

   Question

   Which built-in laptop components commonly provide physical privacy or identity checks?

   Réponse

   Components such as fingerprint or facial-recognition hardware and near-field credential readers. Their firmware, drivers, permissions, and enrollment must all support the feature.

7. Carte 7

   Question

   Why does Wi-Fi antenna placement matter after a laptop repair?

   Réponse

   Correct routing and terminal placement preserve signal quality. A pinched cable, loose connector, or swapped main/aux lead can weaken wireless performance.

8. Carte 8

   Question

   A replacement laptop camera has no image. What should you check before replacing it again?

   Réponse

   Check its internal cable, privacy shutter or switch, firmware detection, driver, and app permission. A hardware replacement won't fix a blocked camera setting.

9. Carte 9

   Question

   A built-in mobile-device microphone is silent. What should you check first?

   Réponse

   Check the selected input, mute state, app permission, and microphone opening. Then inspect the internal connection if every app fails.

10. Carte 10

    Question

    Why disconnect the internal battery before replacing laptop RAM, storage, or a display assembly?

    Réponse

    To remove standby power from the board and reduce short-circuit risk. Follow the model's shutdown and battery-disconnection procedure.

11. Carte 11

    Question

    What should guide any field replacement inside a thin mobile device?

    Réponse

    The manufacturer's service instructions, warranty terms, and ESD precautions. Adhesives, hidden cables, and replaceable assemblies vary by model.

12. Carte 12

    Question

    How do USB-C, microUSB, and miniUSB differ?

    Réponse

    They are different connector shapes. USB-C is reversible; microUSB and miniUSB are older keyed designs, and none of the shapes alone guarantees a data speed.

13. Carte 13

    Question

    What can a laptop docking station add through one host connection?

    Réponse

    Power, displays, networking, storage, and peripheral ports. The host, dock, cable, and software must support the promised features.

14. Carte 14

    Question

    What must match for a stylus to support pressure or precision input?

    Réponse

    The stylus technology and the device's digitizer. A generic capacitive stylus may act like a finger but can't add unsupported active-pen features.

15. Carte 15

    Question

    Which connector is associated with many older Apple mobile devices?

    Réponse

    Lightning. Match the cable to the actual model because newer Apple devices may use USB-C.

16. Carte 16

    Question

    How do a headset, external speaker, and webcam extend a mobile workstation?

    Réponse

    A headset adds private audio input/output, a speaker adds room audio, and a webcam adds video input. Select each one in the app after connecting it.

17. Carte 17

    Question

    How do a trackpad, drawing pad, and trackpoint differ?

    Réponse

    A trackpad senses finger gestures, a drawing pad captures pen input, and a trackpoint moves the pointer from a small keyboard-mounted stick.

18. Carte 18

    Question

    What is NFC commonly used for on a mobile device?

    Réponse

    Very short-range exchanges such as tap-to-pay, credential reading, or quick pairing. Its short working distance supports deliberate tap-style use.

19. Carte 19

    Question

    How is a port replicator different from a full docking station?

    Réponse

    A port replicator mainly exposes additional connectors; a dock commonly adds broader capabilities such as charging, displays, or networking. Verify the product's actual feature list.

20. Carte 20

    Question

    Which connection is the usual choice for nearby mobile headsets and keyboards?

    Réponse

    Bluetooth. It provides short-range wireless accessory links with relatively low power use.

21. Carte 21

    Question

    What does mobile tethering or hotspot mode do?

    Réponse

    It shares the device's internet connection with another client, commonly over Wi-Fi, USB, or Bluetooth. The carrier plan may limit tethering or data use.

22. Carte 22

    Question

    How do 3G, 4G, and 5G relate on a mobile device?

    Réponse

    They are cellular network generations. Newer generations can offer more capacity or lower latency, but the device, SIM or eSIM, plan, coverage, and local network determine service.

23. Carte 23

    Question

    What is the practical difference between a SIM and an eSIM?

    Réponse

    A SIM is a removable identity module; an eSIM stores a carrier profile in embedded hardware. Both associate the device with cellular service.

24. Carte 24

    Question

    What sequence pairs a Bluetooth accessory safely?

    Réponse

    Enable Bluetooth, put the accessory in pairing mode, select the intended device, confirm any PIN or code, and test the connection.

25. Carte 25

    Question

    How do GPS and cellular location services complement each other?

    Réponse

    GPS derives position from satellites, while cellular and nearby-network data can speed or assist location. App permission and device settings control access.

26. Carte 26

    Question

    Which radios should you check when a phone has neither local Wi-Fi nor wide-area data?

    Réponse

    Check Wi-Fi and cellular data separately, along with airplane mode. One radio can be disabled while the other remains available.

27. Carte 27

    Question

    What should you verify when adding mail to a mobile device?

    Réponse

    Verify the account, credentials, incoming and outgoing server settings, security method, and network access. A correct password can't repair a wrong server setting.

28. Carte 28

    Question

    A phone can browse on Wi-Fi but not through its hotspot. What should you check?

    Réponse

    Check that hotspot service is enabled, cellular data works, the plan permits tethering, and the client has the correct hotspot password.

29. Carte 29

    Question

    How should you test a newly configured mobile connection?

    Réponse

    Test the intended path and service: join the correct network or carrier, verify addressing or signal, then open the required app or destination.

30. Carte 30

    Question

    What does mobile device management provide?

    Réponse

    Central enrollment, device configuration, policy enforcement, corporate-app deployment, inventory, and approved remote actions.

31. Carte 31

    Question

    How do corporate-owned and BYOD management profiles usually differ?

    Réponse

    Corporate-owned devices normally allow broader organizational control; BYOD profiles should isolate managed work data and respect the user's personal data under policy.

32. Carte 32

    Question

    What should be checked when calendar, contacts, or business mail stops synchronizing?

    Réponse

    Check connectivity, account sign-in, sync scope, device time, storage, and service status before removing the account.

33. Carte 33

    Question

    Why do data caps matter to mobile synchronization?

    Réponse

    Large mail, cloud-storage, or app sync jobs can consume metered cellular data. Choose what syncs and whether Wi-Fi is required.

34. Carte 34

    Question

    When is an MDM remote wipe appropriate?

    Réponse

    When policy authorizes removal of protected data from a lost, stolen, retired, or reassigned device. Confirm the exact device and wipe scope first.

35. Carte 35

    Question

    What is the point of separating corporate apps and data on a personal phone?

    Réponse

    It lets the organization enforce work controls and remove managed data without treating the user's whole device as corporate property.

36. Carte 36

    Question

    How do TCP and UDP differ?

    Réponse

    TCP provides connection-oriented, ordered, acknowledged delivery; UDP sends low-overhead datagrams without built-in ordering or retransmission.

37. Carte 37

    Question

    Which ports are associated with classic FTP?

    Réponse

    TCP 21 carries control traffic, and TCP 20 is the traditional active-mode data port. FTP doesn't encrypt credentials or content by itself.

38. Carte 38

    Question

    Which default port does SSH use, and what does it provide?

    Réponse

    TCP 22. SSH provides encrypted remote command-line access and related secure services.

39. Carte 39

    Question

    Which default port is traditionally used for SMTP server-to-server relay?

    Réponse

    TCP 25. Mail clients commonly submit outgoing mail through a separate authenticated service.

40. Carte 40

    Question

    Which port does DNS use?

    Réponse

    Port 53: usually UDP for ordinary queries and TCP when the response or operation requires it.

41. Carte 41

    Question

    Which ports carry DHCP client and server traffic?

    Réponse

    UDP 68 for the client and UDP 67 for the server. A new client can broadcast before it has an address.

42. Carte 42

    Question

    Which ports distinguish HTTP from HTTPS?

    Réponse

    HTTP normally uses TCP 80; HTTPS normally uses TCP 443 and protects the session with TLS.

43. Carte 43

    Question

    Which default port does POP3 use without TLS?

    Réponse

    TCP 110. POP3 commonly downloads messages rather than synchronizing server-side folders like IMAP.

44. Carte 44

    Question

    Which ports are associated with NetBIOS over TCP/IP?

    Réponse

    Ports 137–139. Name service commonly uses 137, datagram service 138, and session service TCP 139.

45. Carte 45

    Question

    Which default port does LDAP use?

    Réponse

    Port 389, commonly TCP. LDAP provides directory queries and updates; protect credentials with an approved secure configuration.

46. Carte 46

    Question

    Which default port does SMB/CIFS commonly use?

    Réponse

    TCP 445. SMB commonly carries file and printer sharing.

47. Carte 47

    Question

    Which default port does RDP use?

    Réponse

    TCP 3389. RDP provides remote graphical access to a Windows system.

48. Carte 48

    Question

    Which default port does Telnet use, and why is it avoided on untrusted networks?

    Réponse

    TCP 23. Telnet sends remote-terminal traffic without SSH's encryption.

49. Carte 49

    Question

    Which default port does IMAP use without TLS?

    Réponse

    TCP 143. IMAP keeps mailbox state and folders synchronized on the server.

50. Carte 50

    Question

    How do common 802.11 families map to Wi-Fi bands?

    Réponse

    802.11b/g use 2.4 GHz; 802.11a/ac use 5 GHz; 802.11n can use 2.4 or 5 GHz; 802.11ax can use 2.4 or 5 GHz, with Wi-Fi 6E extending it to 6 GHz.

51. Carte 51

    Question

    What is the tradeoff when selecting a wider Wi-Fi channel?

    Réponse

    A wider channel can carry more data but occupies more spectrum and may overlap more neighbors. Use a width that clients, regulations, and local conditions support.

52. Carte 52

    Question

    What networking role does Bluetooth fill?

    Réponse

    Short-range personal-area links for accessories and nearby devices. It trades range and throughput for convenience and relatively low power use.

53. Carte 53

    Question

    How do the 2.4, 5, and 6 GHz Wi-Fi bands generally differ?

    Réponse

    2.4 GHz usually reaches farther but is crowded; 5 GHz offers more capacity with less wall penetration; 6 GHz adds clean spectrum for compatible devices but typically has the shortest reach.

54. Carte 54

    Question

    How does NFC differ from general-purpose Wi-Fi?

    Réponse

    NFC handles deliberate, very short-range exchanges; Wi-Fi provides a longer-range network connection with much higher throughput.

55. Carte 55

    Question

    What should guide Wi-Fi channel selection?

    Réponse

    Local regulations, a spectrum or Wi-Fi survey, channel width, band support, interference, and neighboring use. Choose from measured conditions, then retest where users work.

56. Carte 56

    Question

    What is RFID used for?

    Réponse

    Identifying or tracking tagged objects by radio. Readers can work with passive or powered tags at ranges set by the RFID system.

57. Carte 57

    Question

    What distinguishes Wi-Fi 6E from ordinary Wi-Fi 6 operation?

    Réponse

    Wi-Fi 6E permits compatible 802.11ax devices to use the 6 GHz band. Both the client and access point must support that band.

58. Carte 58

    Question

    How do DNS and DHCP server roles differ?

    Réponse

    DNS resolves names to records; DHCP leases IP configuration such as an address, mask, gateway, and DNS servers.

59. Carte 59

    Question

    How do file and print servers centralize shared resources?

    Réponse

    A file server hosts shared data and permissions; a print server manages printer queues, drivers, and access.

60. Carte 60

    Question

    How do mail and web servers differ?

    Réponse

    A mail server transfers or stores messages; a web server returns site or application content over HTTP or HTTPS.

61. Carte 61

    Question

    Why would a network use both syslog and NTP servers?

    Réponse

    Syslog centralizes event messages, while NTP aligns device clocks so those events have comparable timestamps.

62. Carte 62

    Question

    How do AAA and database servers differ?

    Réponse

    An AAA server handles authentication, authorization, and accounting; a database server stores and queries structured application data.

63. Carte 63

    Question

    How do a spam gateway and a proxy serve different traffic?

    Réponse

    A spam gateway filters mail flow; a proxy relays client requests and may enforce filtering, logging, or caching for supported services.

64. Carte 64

    Question

    How do a UTM appliance and a load balancer differ?

    Réponse

    A UTM combines gateway security controls; a load balancer distributes requests across service instances for capacity or availability.

65. Carte 65

    Question

    Why do legacy and embedded network systems need cautious support planning?

    Réponse

    They may have fixed software, limited interfaces, or long service lives. Isolate them, preserve required compatibility, and change them only within vendor and operational constraints.

66. Carte 66

    Question

    What does SCADA monitor or control?

    Réponse

    Industrial processes and equipment. Availability and physical safety requirements belong in every support decision.

67. Carte 67

    Question

    Why are IoT devices often placed on a separate network?

    Réponse

    Segmentation limits what an outdated or compromised device can reach and makes its traffic easier to manage.

68. Carte 68

    Question

    Match DNS A, AAAA, CNAME, and MX records to their jobs.

    Réponse

    A maps a hostname to IPv4, AAAA maps it to IPv6, CNAME aliases one hostname to another, and MX identifies a domain's mail exchangers.

69. Carte 69

    Question

    How do a DHCP scope and exclusion differ?

    Réponse

    The scope defines the address pool and options DHCP can offer; an exclusion removes selected addresses from automatic leasing.

70. Carte 70

    Question

    What does a VLAN create on switched infrastructure?

    Réponse

    A logical Layer 2 broadcast domain. It separates traffic without requiring a different physical switch for every segment.

71. Carte 71

    Question

    What does a VPN protect?

    Réponse

    Traffic across an untrusted network by creating an authenticated encrypted tunnel. Endpoint security and resource permissions still matter.

72. Carte 72

    Question

    How do DNS TXT records support SPF, DKIM, and DMARC?

    Réponse

    TXT records publish mail-policy data: SPF lists authorized senders, DKIM exposes keys for signature checks, and DMARC sets alignment policy and reporting.

73. Carte 73

    Question

    How do a DHCP lease and reservation differ?

    Réponse

    A lease is a time-limited address assignment; a reservation consistently offers a chosen address to a specific client, usually by MAC address.

74. Carte 74

    Question

    How do access and trunk switch ports handle VLANs?

    Réponse

    An access port normally carries one endpoint VLAN; a trunk carries tagged traffic for multiple VLANs.

75. Carte 75

    Question

    When would you choose a site-to-site VPN instead of a client VPN?

    Réponse

    Choose site-to-site for a persistent protected link between networks; choose a client VPN for an individual endpoint connecting remotely.

76. Carte 76

    Question

    How do routers and Ethernet switches differ?

    Réponse

    A router forwards packets between IP networks; a switch forwards local frames using learned MAC-address locations.

77. Carte 77

    Question

    What does a wireless access point do?

    Réponse

    It bridges compatible wireless clients onto a wired LAN. Routing, DHCP, and internet access may come from other devices.

78. Carte 78

    Question

    What is a patch panel's role?

    Réponse

    It passively terminates and organizes permanent cable runs. Patch cords connect those runs to active equipment such as switches.

79. Carte 79

    Question

    What is a firewall's core job?

    Réponse

    It permits or blocks traffic according to security rules. Logs help explain why expected traffic was accepted or denied.

80. Carte 80

    Question

    How do managed and unmanaged switches differ?

    Réponse

    A managed switch exposes configuration and monitoring such as VLANs; an unmanaged switch provides basic switching with little or no administration.

81. Carte 81

    Question

    How can PoE be supplied, and what must match?

    Réponse

    A PoE switch or injector can supply it. The source standard, powered device, cable, per-port state, and total power budget must be compatible.

82. Carte 82

    Question

    Match cable modem, DSL modem, ONT, and NIC to their access roles.

    Réponse

    Cable and DSL modems terminate coax and telephone-copper services; an ONT terminates provider fiber; a NIC connects the host and carries its physical MAC address.

83. Carte 83

    Question

    How do private and public IPv4 addresses differ?

    Réponse

    Private ranges are used inside networks and aren't routed on the public internet; a public address is globally routable when assigned. NAT often translates between them.

84. Carte 84

    Question

    What does a 169.254.x.x IPv4 address usually indicate?

    Réponse

    APIPA self-assignment after the host failed to obtain DHCP configuration. Check the link and path to DHCP.

85. Carte 85

    Question

    When should a SOHO device use static rather than dynamic IP configuration?

    Réponse

    Use static or reserved addressing when a predictable endpoint is required; use DHCP for ordinary clients that can accept leased settings.

86. Carte 86

    Question

    What does an IPv4 subnet mask tell a host?

    Réponse

    Which address bits identify the local network. The host uses it to decide whether to send directly or through a gateway.

87. Carte 87

    Question

    How does IPv6 addressing differ from IPv4 addressing?

    Réponse

    IPv6 uses 128-bit hexadecimal addresses; IPv4 uses 32-bit dotted-decimal addresses. Both still require correct local and routing configuration.

88. Carte 88

    Question

    What does a default gateway provide?

    Réponse

    The next hop for destinations outside the local subnet. It is normally the local router interface for that network.

89. Carte 89

    Question

    How do fiber, cable, and DSL internet access differ?

    Réponse

    Fiber carries light and offers high capacity; cable uses a shared coax access network; DSL carries broadband over telephone copper and depends strongly on line distance and quality.

90. Carte 90

    Question

    How do PAN, LAN, and WLAN differ?

    Réponse

    A PAN links one person's nearby devices, a LAN serves a local site, and a WLAN is the wireless form of a local-area network.

91. Carte 91

    Question

    When are cellular, WISP, and satellite internet useful?

    Réponse

    Cellular uses mobile coverage, a WISP uses a terrestrial provider radio link, and satellite reaches beyond many ground networks. Signal, latency, limits, and availability guide the choice.

92. Carte 92

    Question

    How do MAN and WAN scopes differ?

    Réponse

    A MAN links sites across a city or metropolitan area; a WAN spans larger geographic distances and joins multiple networks.

93. Carte 93

    Question

    What is a storage area network?

    Réponse

    A SAN is a dedicated network that presents shared block storage to servers. It is different from an ordinary user LAN or file share.

94. Carte 94

    Question

    Which tools prepare and terminate a modular copper cable?

    Réponse

    A cable stripper removes the jacket; a crimper attaches a compatible modular plug. Use the intended pinout, then test the cable.

95. Carte 95

    Question

    How do a punchdown tool and cable tester support a permanent cable run?

    Réponse

    The punchdown tool seats conductors into an IDC block; the tester checks continuity and wire-map faults after termination.

96. Carte 96

    Question

    How do a toner probe and loopback plug answer different network questions?

    Réponse

    A tone generator and probe identify a cable's far end; a loopback plug tests whether a port can transmit and receive through its own interface.

97. Carte 97

    Question

    How do a Wi-Fi analyzer and network tap differ?

    Réponse

    A Wi-Fi analyzer measures nearby wireless networks and channels; a network tap exposes a link's traffic to monitoring equipment without becoming the endpoint.

98. Carte 98

    Question

    How do IPS, TN, and VA LCD panels generally differ?

    Réponse

    IPS favors color consistency and viewing angles, TN favors fast response at low cost, and VA favors contrast. Actual panel quality still varies.

99. Carte 99

    Question

    How do OLED and Mini-LED displays produce light?

    Réponse

    OLED pixels emit their own light; Mini-LED is an LCD that uses many small backlight zones. OLED can show deep blacks, while Mini-LED can reach high brightness without organic pixels.

100. Carte 100

     Question

     What does a touchscreen digitizer do?

     Réponse

     It detects touch or compatible stylus position. The display creates the image; the digitizer reports input coordinates.

101. Carte 101

     Question

     What does an inverter do in an older LCD backlight system?

     Réponse

     It converts power for the fluorescent backlight. Modern LED-backlit panels use different driver electronics.

102. Carte 102

     Question

     How do screen resolution and pixel density differ?

     Réponse

     Resolution is the number of addressable pixels; pixel density is how tightly those pixels fit in a physical area. Both affect perceived detail.

103. Carte 103

     Question

     What do refresh rate and color gamut describe?

     Réponse

     Refresh rate is how often the image can update each second; color gamut is the range of colors the display can reproduce.

104. Carte 104

     Question

     How do Cat 5e, Cat 6, and Cat 6A Ethernet cable capabilities compare?

     Réponse

     Cat 5e commonly supports 1 Gb/s to 100 m; Cat 6 improves noise performance and can support 10 Gb/s on shorter runs; Cat 6A is designed for 10 Gb/s to 100 m.

105. Carte 105

     Question

     How do HDMI and DisplayPort fit typical display setups?

     Réponse

     Both carry digital video and audio. HDMI is common on TVs and consumer equipment; DisplayPort is common on PCs and monitors, with features set by the negotiated versions.

106. Carte 106

     Question

     What is the practical difference between T568A and T568B terminations?

     Réponse

     They place the green and orange pairs in different pin positions. Use one recognized scheme consistently at both plug and punchdown-block terminations for a normal straight-through run.

107. Carte 107

     Question

     Which cable ratings suit EMI, outdoor burial, and air-handling spaces?

     Réponse

     Unshielded twisted pair suits ordinary low-interference runs, shielded twisted pair helps with EMI, direct-burial cable resists outdoor moisture, and plenum-rated cable limits flame spread and smoke in plenum spaces.

108. Carte 108

     Question

     Match RJ11, RJ45, and F-type connectors to common cabling.

     Réponse

     RJ11 is commonly used for telephone wiring, the 8P8C connector called RJ45 for twisted-pair Ethernet, and F-type for threaded coax connections.

109. Carte 109

     Question

     How do DVI and VGA differ?

     Réponse

     DVI variants may carry digital video, analog video, or both; VGA carries analog video through a 15-pin D-sub connector.

110. Carte 110

     Question

     How do single-mode and multimode fiber differ, and which connectors may terminate them?

     Réponse

     Single-mode uses a small core for long links; multimode uses a larger core for shorter links. ST, SC, and LC are connector styles that must match the link hardware and fiber type.

111. Carte 111

     Question

     What should you infer from USB 2.0, USB 3.x, microUSB, miniUSB, USB-C, and Lightning labels?

     Réponse

     USB 2.0 and 3.x describe protocol capabilities. MicroUSB, miniUSB, and USB-C are USB connector families; Lightning is a separate Apple connector. Plug shape alone doesn't guarantee speed or video support.

112. Carte 112

     Question

     How do SATA, eSATA, and Molex relate to storage connections?

     Réponse

     SATA carries internal drive data, eSATA extends SATA to an external connector, and a Molex plug is a legacy power connector. Data and power paths are separate.

113. Carte 113

     Question

     Which legacy peripheral link commonly uses a DB9 connector?

     Réponse

     A serial connection such as RS-232. It sends data sequentially and is still used for some console and industrial equipment.

114. Carte 114

     Question

     When does a cable adapter need active electronics?

     Réponse

     When the source and destination use different signaling, not just different plug shapes. A passive adapter only changes compatible wiring; an active adapter converts the signal.

115. Carte 115

     Question

     Where are DIMM and SO-DIMM modules normally used?

     Réponse

     Full-size DIMMs normally fit desktop or server boards; shorter SO-DIMMs fit many laptops and compact systems.

116. Carte 116

     Question

     Why doesn't every USB-C cable provide Thunderbolt or display output?

     Réponse

     USB-C names the connector. Thunderbolt, USB speed, charging level, and video alternate modes require matching support from the port, cable, and device.

117. Carte 117

     Question

     Can one DDR memory generation be installed in another generation's slot?

     Réponse

     No. DDR generations use different electrical designs and keying, so the module must match the motherboard.

118. Carte 118

     Question

     How does ECC RAM differ from non-ECC RAM?

     Réponse

     ECC can detect and correct certain memory errors; non-ECC lacks that protection. The CPU and motherboard must support ECC.

119. Carte 119

     Question

     What does a dual- or multi-channel memory configuration require?

     Réponse

     Compatible modules installed in the motherboard's paired channel slots. The board manual identifies the correct population order.

120. Carte 120

     Question

     What happens when compatible RAM modules have different rated speeds?

     Réponse

     They normally operate at a mutually supported speed, often the slower module's rate. Platform and firmware limits can reduce it further.

121. Carte 121

     Question

     What limits a system's usable RAM capacity?

     Réponse

     The CPU memory controller, motherboard, firmware, operating system, and supported module layout. Check the platform documentation before buying modules.

122. Carte 122

     Question

     How do RAID 0 and RAID 1 trade capacity for protection?

     Réponse

     RAID 0 stripes data for capacity and performance but has no redundancy; RAID 1 mirrors data and can survive one member failure.

123. Carte 123

     Question

     How do 2.5-inch and 3.5-inch HDDs, spindle speed, and workload affect a drive choice?

     Réponse

     The bay and interface must fit the form factor; faster spindle speed can improve access but adds heat, noise, and power use. Workload and capacity still matter.

124. Carte 124

     Question

     How do SATA SSDs and NVMe SSDs communicate?

     Réponse

     A SATA SSD uses the SATA storage interface; an NVMe SSD uses PCIe for lower-latency flash access. The slot and firmware must support the selected signaling.

125. Carte 125

     Question

     Which removable media suit portable files, camera storage, and optical archives?

     Réponse

     USB flash drives suit general transfers, memory cards suit compact devices such as cameras, and optical discs require a drive that supports the disc format.

126. Carte 126

     Question

     How do RAID 5 and RAID 6 differ?

     Réponse

     RAID 5 needs at least three drives and tolerates one member failure; RAID 6 needs at least four and uses dual parity to tolerate two.

127. Carte 127

     Question

     What distinguishes SAS from SATA storage?

     Réponse

     SAS is an enterprise-oriented serial SCSI interface with features such as dual-port support; SATA is common in client storage. The drive and controller interface must match.

128. Carte 128

     Question

     How do M.2 and mSATA differ?

     Réponse

     M.2 is a keyed form-factor family that may carry SATA or PCIe/NVMe; mSATA is an older compact form factor that carries SATA signaling.

129. Carte 129

     Question

     When is an SSD preferable to an HDD?

     Réponse

     Choose an SSD for low-latency, shock-resistant storage; choose an HDD when low-cost bulk capacity matters more. Neither removes the need for backup.

130. Carte 130

     Question

     How do ATX, microATX, and Mini-ITX motherboard form factors affect a build?

     Réponse

     They differ in board size, mounting layout, and typical expansion capacity. The case, power supply, and required slots must fit the board.

131. Carte 131

     Question

     Match common motherboard connectors to their jobs.

     Réponse

     PCI and PCIe host expansion cards; SATA and eSATA carry storage data; M.2 hosts compact devices; headers connect case features; power connectors feed the board and CPU.

132. Carte 132

     Question

     What does RAID 10 provide?

     Réponse

     Striping across mirrored pairs, normally using at least four drives. It combines performance with redundancy, but surviving multiple failures depends on which members fail.

133. Carte 133

     Question

     What must match before installing an AMD or Intel CPU?

     Réponse

     The CPU socket, chipset, firmware, and thermal design must support that exact processor. Multisocket boards also require a supported processor combination.

134. Carte 134

     Question

     Which UEFI settings commonly control startup and hardware access?

     Réponse

     Boot order, removable-media boot, USB permissions, fan behavior, temperature monitoring, and virtualization support. Change only the setting required for the task.

135. Carte 135

     Question

     How do Secure Boot, a boot password, and a firmware setup password differ?

     Réponse

     Secure Boot verifies trusted boot software; a boot password challenges startup; a setup password restricts firmware changes.

136. Carte 136

     Question

     How do x86, x64, and ARM CPU architectures affect compatibility?

     Réponse

     They use different instruction-set families; x86 is 32-bit, x64 extends that family to 64-bit, and ARM uses a RISC design. The OS and applications need compatible builds.

137. Carte 137

     Question

     What does adding CPU cores improve?

     Réponse

     Parallel work when software can use the cores. Architecture, clock speed, cooling, memory, and workload still shape performance.

138. Carte 138

     Question

     Match sound, video, capture, and network expansion cards to their jobs.

     Réponse

     Sound cards handle audio I/O, video cards render graphics, capture cards ingest external media signals, and NICs add network connectivity.

139. Carte 139

     Question

     How do a TPM and HSM support encryption differently?

     Réponse

     A TPM is a system security chip for protected keys and platform measurements; an HSM is a dedicated device or service for controlled cryptographic key operations.

140. Carte 140

     Question

     How do fans and heat sinks work together?

     Réponse

     A heat sink spreads component heat across fins; fans move air across those fins and through the case.

141. Carte 141

     Question

     Why are thermal paste or pads placed between a chip and cooler?

     Réponse

     They fill microscopic gaps so heat transfers efficiently. Use the specified material and amount.

142. Carte 142

     Question

     What extra components does liquid CPU cooling add to diagnosis?

     Réponse

     A pump, coolant path, radiator, fans, tubing, and seals. Verify mounting, flow, airflow, and leaks.

143. Carte 143

     Question

     What hardware and firmware support may a hypervisor require?

     Réponse

     A compatible CPU virtualization feature enabled in UEFI, plus enough memory, storage, networking, and security controls for its guests.

144. Carte 144

     Question

     What must be checked when a PSU can receive 110–120 VAC or 220–240 VAC?

     Réponse

     Its input range and selector behavior. Use the local mains range and never guess with a manual voltage switch.

145. Carte 145

     Question

     What do the 3.3 V, 5 V, and 12 V PSU rails typically power?

     Réponse

     They supply different component circuits: 3.3 V and 5 V serve logic and peripherals, while 12 V commonly feeds CPU/GPU regulators, motors, and fans.

146. Carte 146

     Question

     What does a 20+4-pin ATX connector power?

     Réponse

     The motherboard's main input. The CPU normally needs a separate 4- or 8-pin EPS-style connection.

147. Carte 147

     Question

     How should PSU wattage be chosen?

     Réponse

     Add the system's realistic peak demand and sensible headroom, then confirm connector, rail, and quality requirements. A large wattage label alone doesn't prove suitability.

148. Carte 148

     Question

     What is the advantage and main caution of a modular PSU?

     Réponse

     Detachable cables reduce clutter, but only cables approved for that exact PSU should be used. Modular pinouts aren't universally interchangeable.

149. Carte 149

     Question

     What does a redundant power supply provide?

     Réponse

     Two or more power modules so one can fail without immediately stopping the system. Redundancy still needs correct capacity and monitoring.

150. Carte 150

     Question

     Why does PSU efficiency matter?

     Réponse

     Higher efficiency wastes less input power as heat at a given load. Efficiency certification doesn't replace checks for electrical quality, capacity, or connectors.

151. Carte 151

     Question

     How does a laser printer create and fix an image?

     Réponse

     It forms an electrostatic image, applies toner, and bonds the toner with a heated fuser. Toner, drum, transfer, and fuser parts all affect output.

152. Carte 152

     Question

     What should be checked when unboxing and placing a multifunction printer?

     Réponse

     Remove shipping locks, allow service clearance and ventilation, match power and network access, load supported media, and choose a stable location.

153. Carte 153

     Question

     How do PCL and PostScript printer drivers differ?

     Réponse

     PCL is common for fast office output and can vary by device; PostScript describes pages in a device-independent way that suits complex graphics. Use the printer's supported driver.

154. Carte 154

     Question

     What should be verified when choosing USB, Ethernet, or Wi-Fi for a printer?

     Réponse

     Verify the intended users, cable or signal path, addressing, security, firmware, and driver support. USB serves a local host; network links serve reachable clients.

155. Carte 155

     Question

     Which parts and maintenance tasks are typical for an inkjet printer?

     Réponse

     Ink cartridges, printheads, pickup rollers, and feeders. Clean or align printheads, replace approved cartridges, clear jams, and service feed parts as needed.

156. Carte 156

     Question

     How do printer sharing and a print server differ?

     Réponse

     A printer share exposes a queue from a host; a print server centralizes queues, drivers, permissions, and management for many clients.

157. Carte 157

     Question

     Which settings commonly change a print job's physical output?

     Réponse

     Duplex, portrait or landscape orientation, paper tray and size, and quality. The application, driver, and device settings must agree.

158. Carte 158

     Question

     Which controls protect a public or shared printer?

     Réponse

     User authentication or badging, secure print release, appropriate permissions, and audit logs. They reduce abandoned sensitive output and trace approved use.

159. Carte 159

     Question

     How does a direct thermal printer work and what maintenance does it need?

     Réponse

     Heat darkens special thermal paper. Replace the paper correctly, clean the heating element and feed path, and remove debris.

160. Carte 160

     Question

     Where can a network multifunction device send scans?

     Réponse

     Common destinations are email, an SMB file share, or an approved cloud service. Configure credentials, permissions, addressing, and encryption for the destination.

161. Carte 161

     Question

     When should you use an ADF instead of a flatbed scanner?

     Réponse

     Use the automatic document feeder for stacks of loose pages; use the flatbed for fragile, bound, thick, or single originals.

162. Carte 162

     Question

     What does printer calibration correct?

     Réponse

     Placement, density, alignment, or color registration. Run the maker's procedure after relevant part or image-quality changes.

163. Carte 163

     Question

     Why does an impact printer suit multipart forms?

     Réponse

     Pins strike an inked ribbon and physically transfer the mark through layered paper. The mechanism is noisy but can mark multiple copies.

164. Carte 164

     Question

     What does a laser-printer maintenance kit commonly refresh?

     Réponse

     Wear parts such as rollers and the fuser, as defined for that model. Replace depleted toner, install the kit at its service interval, calibrate when output shifts, and clean only through approved paths.

165. Carte 165

     Question

     How do inkjet feed and printhead maintenance address different faults?

     Réponse

     Roller and feeder service fixes paper movement; printhead cleaning or alignment fixes missing or misplaced ink. Use the symptom to choose the maintenance.

166. Carte 166

     Question

     What is a virtual machine?

     Réponse

     A software-defined computer with virtual CPU, memory, storage, and devices that runs a guest operating system on a host.

167. Carte 167

     Question

     Where does a Type 1 hypervisor run?

     Réponse

     Directly on the host hardware. This bare-metal design is common in servers and virtualization platforms.

168. Carte 168

     Question

     Why use a VM as a sandbox or test environment?

     Réponse

     It isolates a disposable environment from the main workload and makes repeatable testing easier. Isolation reduces risk but doesn't make untrusted code harmless.

169. Carte 169

     Question

     Which VM resources must be sized against real host capacity?

     Réponse

     vCPU, memory, storage space, and I/O. Overcommitting them can make several guests compete for the same hardware.

170. Carte 170

     Question

     What does application virtualization do?

     Réponse

     It packages, streams, or isolates an application from the base installation. It can simplify delivery or preserve some legacy applications without virtualizing a whole desktop.

171. Carte 171

     Question

     Where does a Type 2 hypervisor run?

     Réponse

     As an application on a host operating system. It is convenient for desktop labs, testing, and occasional guests.

172. Carte 172

     Question

     Which security layers need attention on a virtualization host?

     Réponse

     The host, hypervisor, management access, guest OSs, virtual networks, and images. Patch and isolate each layer according to its role.

173. Carte 173

     Question

     What must be planned for VM networking?

     Réponse

     Addressing, virtual switch or NAT mode, segmentation, bandwidth, and access controls. A guest still needs a deliberate path to required services.

174. Carte 174

     Question

     What does VDI deliver?

     Réponse

     Centrally hosted desktop sessions to remote clients. Compute and management stay in the data center or cloud rather than on each endpoint.

175. Carte 175

     Question

     What must be planned for VM storage?

     Réponse

     Capacity, performance, snapshots, backup, and failure location. A snapshot on the same datastore isn't a complete backup.

176. Carte 176

     Question

     How does a container differ from a typical VM?

     Réponse

     A container isolates an application while sharing the host kernel; a VM normally includes a full guest operating system.

177. Carte 177

     Question

     How can virtualization support legacy or cross-platform workloads?

     Réponse

     A compatible guest OS or virtualized application layer can preserve the required environment. CPU architecture, licenses, drivers, and hardware access still constrain compatibility.

178. Carte 178

     Question

     What does a container image provide?

     Réponse

     A repeatable application filesystem and configuration used to start containers. Running containers add temporary writable state unless storage is attached.

179. Carte 179

     Question

     A virtualization option is unavailable. What should you verify?

     Réponse

     Verify CPU and platform support, then enable the required virtualization feature in UEFI if policy allows. Also confirm that another hypervisor hasn't claimed it.

180. Carte 180

     Question

     What defines a public cloud?

     Réponse

     It is offered for open use by the general public and operated by a cloud provider. Its resources may be shared or dedicated, depending on the service.

181. Carte 181

     Question

     What does IaaS provide?

     Réponse

     Cloud compute, networking, and storage infrastructure. The customer usually manages the operating system, applications, identities, and data.

182. Carte 182

     Question

     What is cloud elasticity?

     Réponse

     The ability to add or remove resources as demand changes, automatically or on request.

183. Carte 183

     Question

     What does metered cloud utilization measure?

     Réponse

     Consumed resources such as compute time, storage, requests, or transferred data for reporting, limits, and billing.

184. Carte 184

     Question

     What defines a private cloud?

     Réponse

     Cloud infrastructure reserved for one organization. It can run on-site or be hosted and operated by a provider.

185. Carte 185

     Question

     What does SaaS provide?

     Réponse

     A complete provider-run application accessed as a service. The customer mainly manages users, settings, and data.

186. Carte 186

     Question

     How do shared and dedicated cloud resources differ?

     Réponse

     Shared resources serve multiple customers with logical isolation; dedicated resources are reserved for one customer. Either can appear in a provider's public-cloud offering.

187. Carte 187

     Question

     What is high availability designed to reduce?

     Réponse

     Service downtime from component or location failure through redundancy and failover.

188. Carte 188

     Question

     What is a hybrid cloud?

     Réponse

     A coordinated use of private-cloud and public-cloud environments, with workloads or data placed where their requirements fit.

189. Carte 189

     Question

     What does PaaS provide?

     Réponse

     A managed application platform and runtime. Developers deploy code while the provider manages more of the operating system and infrastructure.

190. Carte 190

     Question

     What do cloud ingress and egress mean?

     Réponse

     Ingress is data entering the cloud service; egress is data leaving it. Providers often meter them differently, and egress can create a notable cost.

191. Carte 191

     Question

     What does cloud multitenancy mean?

     Réponse

     Multiple customers use provider infrastructure while their workloads and data remain logically isolated.

192. Carte 192

     Question

     What is a community cloud?

     Réponse

     Cloud infrastructure reserved for organizations with shared requirements, such as a sector or policy need, rather than for unrestricted public use.

193. Carte 193

     Question

     What does FaaS run?

     Réponse

     Event-triggered functions without the customer managing servers directly. The provider manages the execution environment and scaling mechanics.

194. Carte 194

     Question

     Does using a cloud service remove the customer's security duties?

     Réponse

     No. Responsibility is shared: the provider protects its service layers, while the customer still manages assigned areas such as identities, settings, applications, and data.

195. Carte 195

     Question

     What can happen when two offline devices edit the same cloud-synchronized file?

     Réponse

     A synchronization conflict. Preserve both versions, let sync finish, compare the changes, and keep the intended content.

196. Carte 196

     Question

     A PC stops at POST with a beep or status-light pattern. What should you do next?

     Réponse

     Look up the exact pattern in the system or motherboard service documentation, then test the indicated component.

197. Carte 197

     Question

     A desktop shows no lights or fan movement. Where should power diagnosis start?

     Réponse

     At the outlet, power strip, cord, PSU input switch, and main internal power connections. Move from the source inward.

198. Carte 198

     Question

     A PC shows a proprietary crash screen. What evidence should you collect first?

     Réponse

     Record the stop code and recent hardware changes, then check memory, storage, drivers, temperature, and logs indicated by that code.

199. Carte 199

     Question

     A PC powers on but the screen stays blank. What hardware checks come first?

     Réponse

     Check display power and input, video cabling, GPU seating or power, and whether POST completes. Test one known-good display path at a time.

200. Carte 200

     Question

     A computer is sluggish under ordinary work. Which hardware conditions should you check?

     Réponse

     Check temperature and throttling, RAM pressure, storage health and free space, CPU load, and background I/O before replacing parts.

201. Carte 201

     Question

     A PC becomes unstable as CPU temperature rises. What should you inspect?

     Réponse

     Inspect fan operation, heat-sink mounting, thermal material, dust, filters, and case airflow. The CPU may throttle or shut down to protect itself.

202. Carte 202

     Question

     You smell burning from a powered computer. What is the immediate action?

     Réponse

     Shut it down and disconnect power. Don't keep testing until the damaged power or board component has been safely identified.

203. Carte 203

     Question

     A PC shuts down randomly only during heavy GPU work. What should you test?

     Réponse

     Test PSU capacity and condition, GPU power leads, temperature, and event logs. Peak load can expose weak power or cooling.

204. Carte 204

     Question

     Applications crash randomly after new RAM is installed. What should you do?

     Réponse

     Verify compatibility and slot placement, reseat the modules, and run a memory diagnostic. Test modules separately if needed.

205. Carte 205

     Question

     A computer develops an unusual fan or grinding noise. What should you inspect?

     Réponse

     Inspect fans, cables, pumps, drives, dust, and mounting points while the system is safely powered down when contact is possible.

206. Carte 206

     Question

     What should you do after finding a swollen motherboard capacitor?

     Réponse

     Disconnect power and replace the failed board or arrange qualified component service. Don't keep operating a board with a visibly failing capacitor.

207. Carte 207

     Question

     A PC loses its date and time whenever it is unplugged. What is the likely cause?

     Réponse

     A weak motherboard coin-cell battery. Replace it with the specified type and restore any lost firmware settings.

208. Carte 208

     Question

     Firmware reports less RAM than is installed. What is the first corrective step?

     Réponse

     Power down, follow ESD precautions, and reseat the modules in the recommended slots. Then test compatibility, sticks, and slots methodically.

209. Carte 209

     Question

     A newly installed CPU isn't recognized even though it fits the socket. What should you verify?

     Réponse

     Verify chipset and firmware support, CPU power, contact condition, seating, and cooling. Physical fit alone doesn't prove compatibility.

210. Carte 210

     Question

     How can you isolate a motherboard, CPU, RAM, or PSU no-POST fault?

     Réponse

     Reduce the system to minimum required hardware, confirm known-good power, and add components back one at a time.

211. Carte 211

     Question

     A storage controller shows a warning LED or audible alarm. What should you do first?

     Réponse

     Read the controller's exact status, preserve a current backup, and identify the affected drive or array before replacing anything.

212. Carte 212

     Question

     A hard drive clicks or grinds while reads fail. What should you prioritize?

     Réponse

     Stop unnecessary activity, preserve recoverable data, and replace the drive. Repeated testing can worsen a mechanical failure.

213. Carte 213

     Question

     A PC reports no bootable device. Which checks come first?

     Réponse

     Check firmware drive detection and boot order, then data and power connections. If the drive is detected, check its health before changing partitions.

214. Carte 214

     Question

     Files are corrupt or missing after storage errors. What should you do?

     Réponse

     Stop writes, preserve the affected media, restore from a verified backup when appropriate, and diagnose the drive, controller, memory, and filesystem cause.

215. Carte 215

     Question

     A controller reports an array missing. What should you avoid?

     Réponse

     Don't initialize or recreate it blindly. Check controller configuration, cabling, power, member detection, and the documented recovery path first.

216. Carte 216

     Question

     A drive has unusually long read and write times. What should you inspect?

     Réponse

     Inspect health data, errors, cable or link negotiation, free space, workload, temperature, and the storage interface.

217. Carte 217

     Question

     What should you do after a S.M.A.R.T. failure warning?

     Réponse

     Back up important data immediately and plan drive replacement. A health warning isn't something to clear and ignore.

218. Carte 218

     Question

     Firmware sees a drive, but the operating system doesn't. What should you check?

     Réponse

     Check OS storage management, drivers, bus support, partitions, and whether the disk is offline. Don't initialize a disk that may contain needed data.

219. Carte 219

     Question

     A RAID array is degraded after a member fails. What is the safe response?

     Réponse

     Confirm the failed member, verify backup, replace it through the controller's procedure, and monitor the rebuild. Don't remove a healthy member by guesswork.

220. Carte 220

     Question

     What can cause low storage IOPS even when capacity is available?

     Réponse

     A saturated or slow device, high queue depth, contention, thermal throttling, controller limits, or an unsuitable RAID layout.

221. Carte 221

     Question

     A monitor reports no signal. What should you check first?

     Réponse

     Check power, selected input, cable seating, adapter compatibility, and whether the computer is producing video.

222. Carte 222

     Question

     A projector is dim or shuts down intermittently. What should you inspect?

     Réponse

     Inspect the bulb or light source, filters, vents, temperature, brightness settings, room light, and service-life indicators.

223. Carte 223

     Question

     Text looks fuzzy or the desktop doesn't fit the screen. Which settings should you verify?

     Réponse

     Verify native resolution, scaling, aspect ratio, and any overscan setting. Then check cable and adapter quality.

224. Carte 224

     Question

     How do display burn-in and a dead pixel differ?

     Réponse

     Burn-in is persistent image retention across an area; a dead or stuck pixel is a fixed point defect. Confirm each with varied full-screen test images.

225. Carte 225

     Question

     A display flashes or flickers at a new refresh rate. What should you check?

     Réponse

     Check that the display, GPU, port, cable, resolution, and refresh rate combination is supported.

226. Carte 226

     Question

     A projected image is trapezoidal or distorted. What should you adjust?

     Réponse

     Correct projector position, angle, focus, and aspect ratio first; use keystone correction only as needed.

227. Carte 227

     Question

     A monitor shows incorrect colors. How do you isolate the cause?

     Réponse

     Check color settings and profiles, reseat or replace the cable, test another input or display, and inspect GPU output and drivers.

228. Carte 228

     Question

     Video works over HDMI or DisplayPort, but audio doesn't. What should you check?

     Réponse

     Check the OS playback device, application output, display volume, cable capability, and whether the adapter carries audio.

229. Carte 229

     Question

     A laptop LCD shows a faint image only under a flashlight. Which area is likely failing?

     Réponse

     The backlight or its power/driver path. The faint picture shows that image data still reaches the panel.

230. Carte 230

     Question

     A phone battery drains much faster than usual. What should you check first?

     Réponse

     Check battery health and recent screen, app, radio, and location use. Confirm the usage change before replacing hardware.

231. Carte 231

     Question

     A phone has a broken screen but still receives notifications. What should guide the repair?

     Réponse

     Back up accessible data, stop using sharp or exposed surfaces, and determine whether the glass, display, digitizer, or full assembly is replaceable.

232. Carte 232

     Question

     A phone won't charge and its port looks damaged. What is the safe first test?

     Réponse

     Inspect without metal tools, then try a known-good compatible cable and charger. Use wireless charging only if the device supports it and the battery is safe.

233. Carte 233

     Question

     A phone has poor or no connectivity. What should you isolate?

     Réponse

     Test Wi-Fi, cellular, and Bluetooth separately; check airplane mode, signal, account or SIM/eSIM state, and the specific network settings.

234. Carte 234

     Question

     A battery is pushing a mobile-device case apart. What should you do?

     Réponse

     Power it down, stop charging it, and arrange approved battery service. Don't press the case closed.

235. Carte 235

     Question

     A mobile device gets wet. Why should you avoid powering or charging it?

     Réponse

     Moisture can cause shorts and corrosion. Shut it down and follow the manufacturer's drying or service guidance.

236. Carte 236

     Question

     Touch input drifts or misses one area. What should you check?

     Réponse

     Check screen cleanliness and protectors, test calibration if supported, compare apps, and inspect the digitizer connection or damage.

237. Carte 237

     Question

     A phone slows down and overheats during light use. What should you inspect?

     Réponse

     Inspect battery health, storage pressure, updates, background apps, signal hunting, and possible malware. Stop use if heat is unsafe.

238. Carte 238

     Question

     A mobile device shows pop-ups and heavy data use after an untrusted install. What should you suspect?

     Réponse

     Malware or a harmful app. Disconnect as needed, preserve required evidence, remove it through the approved mobile-security process, and update the device.

239. Carte 239

     Question

     A mobile device can't install a new application. What should you check?

     Réponse

     Check free storage, OS and hardware compatibility, account or store access, network service, and MDM policy before bypassing any restriction.

240. Carte 240

     Question

     An active stylus doesn't work, but finger touch does. What should you check?

     Réponse

     Check stylus compatibility, charge or battery, pairing, tip, app support, and the device's active-digitizer settings.

241. Carte 241

     Question

     Users report slow network speeds. What should you measure before changing hardware?

     Réponse

     Measure negotiated link rate, throughput, utilization, errors, signal, channel use, and server or ISP performance to locate the bottleneck.

242. Carte 242

     Question

     Wi-Fi disconnects intermittently in one area. What should you inspect?

     Réponse

     Inspect signal strength, roaming, interference, channel plan, access-point placement, client drivers, and power-saving behavior.

243. Carte 243

     Question

     A client reports limited connectivity. Which layers should you check in order?

     Réponse

     Check physical or wireless link, IP address and mask, gateway, DHCP, DNS, and upstream reachability.

244. Carte 244

     Question

     A user repeatedly fails network authentication. What should you verify?

     Réponse

     Verify the account and credentials, time, certificate, authentication method, network policy, and whether the user or device is authorized.

245. Carte 245

     Question

     Which tools help locate high latency?

     Réponse

     Ping compares delay and loss; traceroute shows the path by hops. Test several destinations to separate a local, provider, and destination issue.

246. Carte 246

     Question

     What signs point to external wireless interference?

     Réponse

     Signal quality or throughput drops despite adequate strength, often near a device or at certain times. A spectrum or Wi-Fi analyzer helps confirm it.

247. Carte 247

     Question

     A switch port repeatedly changes between up and down. What should you isolate?

     Réponse

     Isolate the patch cable, wall run, endpoint NIC, and switch port. Review port logs and test the cable for a port-flapping cause.

248. Carte 248

     Question

     A wired PC has no link light. Where should troubleshooting start?

     Réponse

     At the cable, connector, NIC, and switch port. Changing IP settings can't repair a missing physical link.

249. Carte 249

     Question

     VoIP sounds choppy even though average bandwidth is adequate. Which network condition should you measure?

     Réponse

     Jitter, along with latency and packet loss. QoS and congestion control may help after the impaired path is identified.

250. Carte 250

     Question

     Internet access drops for every local client, then returns. Where should you look?

     Réponse

     Check the shared WAN path: the router's WAN link, modem or ONT, provider service, power, and logs. Independent failures across every local client at once are unlikely.

251. Carte 251

     Question

     A host can reach an internet IP but not a website name. What is the likely fault?

     Réponse

     DNS resolution. Check the configured resolver and test a direct lookup.

252. Carte 252

     Question

     A PC receives a 169.254.x.x address. What should you test next?

     Réponse

     Test its link and the path to DHCP. The APIPA address shows that normal lease configuration failed.

253. Carte 253

     Question

     Two hosts report an address conflict. What should you inspect?

     Réponse

     Inspect static assignments, DHCP reservations, and the lease scope for a duplicate IP address.

254. Carte 254

     Question

     A PC on a new switch port can't reach its department resources. What should you verify?

     Réponse

     Verify the access VLAN, then its routing and policy. A good physical link on the wrong VLAN still provides the wrong network access.

255. Carte 255

     Question

     A PoE camera has network pairs but no power. What should you check?

     Réponse

     Check the injector or switch standard, port state, total power budget, cable quality, and camera power requirement.

256. Carte 256

     Question

     Only one PC lacks network access while nearby systems work. What should you compare?

     Réponse

     Compare its link, IP settings, DNS, authentication, proxy or VPN state, and local firewall with a working peer.

257. Carte 257

     Question

     A printed page has a line in the same place every time. What should you inspect?

     Réponse

     Inspect the cartridge, printhead, drum, scanner glass, and approved cleaning path for contamination or damage, based on printer type.

258. Carte 258

     Question

     A printer produces garbled characters. What should you verify?

     Réponse

     Verify the driver and print language, cable or network path, firmware, and source document. Cancel the bad job before retrying.

259. Carte 259

     Question

     A printer reports a paper jam. What is the safe response?

     Réponse

     Stop the job, follow the documented paper path, remove paper in the specified direction, and check for scraps or damaged rollers.

260. Carte 260

     Question

     Several print jobs remain pending after the printer recovers. What should you do?

     Réponse

     Cancel failed jobs as appropriate, verify printer status and connectivity, restart the print service if needed, then send one small test page.

     

     520 cartes

     CompTIA A+ 220-1201 & 220-1202 Flashcards: Core 1 and Core 2

     Réviser ce paquet gratuitement

     Nibomo s'ouvre pour que vous puissiez commencer à réviser.

261. Carte 261

     Question

     Printed pages are uniformly faded. What should you check?

     Réponse

     Check toner or ink level, density or quality settings, cartridge condition, and the correct media setting.

262. Carte 262

     Question

     A printer makes a grinding noise. What should you do?

     Réponse

     Stop the job and inspect for jammed media, foreign objects, damaged gears, or a misseated cartridge or maintenance part.

263. Carte 263

     Question

     Paper won't feed or several sheets feed together. Which parts should you inspect?

     Réponse

     Inspect pickup rollers, the separation pad, feeder, paper condition, tray guides, and load limit.

264. Carte 264

     Question

     A document prints in the wrong orientation. What should you check?

     Réponse

     Check portrait or landscape settings in the application and driver, then confirm paper size and any device default.

265. Carte 265

     Question

     What commonly causes speckles across printed pages?

     Réponse

     Loose toner, ink contamination, a dirty print path, or a damaged cartridge or drum. Use the printer type and repeating pattern to narrow it.

266. Carte 266

     Question

     A finisher won't staple or punch pages. What should you inspect?

     Réponse

     Inspect the staple cartridge or jam, punch waste bin, finisher seating, supported paper, and driver job settings.

267. Carte 267

     Question

     A printer doesn't recognize a loaded tray. What should you check?

     Réponse

     Check tray seating, paper guides and size sensors, media settings, firmware, and driver configuration.

268. Carte 268

     Question

     A network printer shows Ready but clients can't reach it. What should you test?

     Réponse

     Test its link, IP configuration, address conflict, VLAN and routing path, print port, and firewall access.

269. Carte 269

     Question

     A laser page shows a repeated faint image. Which area should you inspect?

     Réponse

     Inspect the imaging drum and fuser for ghosting. The repeat distance can help the service guide identify the rotating part.

270. Carte 270

     Question

     A print queue is frozen and won't process a test page. What should you do?

     Réponse

     Clear the blocked job safely, restart the spooler or print service, verify disk and printer connectivity, then submit one small test.

271. Carte 271

     Question

     Which desktop OS is the usual choice for broad business software and Active Directory integration?

     Réponse

     Windows. It has the widest support for common business applications and native integration with Microsoft domain services.

272. Carte 272

     Question

     When is a clean OS installation preferable to an in-place upgrade?

     Réponse

     Choose a clean install when you need a fresh system or the existing installation is unreliable. It removes installed apps and settings, so back up user data first.

273. Carte 273

     Question

     Which Windows command lists files and folders in the current directory?

     Réponse

     dir. Use cd when you need to change the current directory.

274. Carte 274

     Question

     Which Windows tool gives a quick view of running processes, startup apps, users, services, and performance?

     Réponse

     Task Manager. It is the first stop for a quick process or resource check.

275. Carte 275

     Question

     What should you check before moving a user between desktop or mobile operating systems?

     Réponse

     Check application, peripheral, file-format, and account compatibility first. A supported OS is still a bad fit if the user's required tools or data won't work on it.

276. Carte 276

     Question

     How should you choose between a public and private Windows network profile?

     Réponse

     Use Public on untrusted networks and Private only on trusted local networks. The profile changes discovery and firewall behavior.

277. Carte 277

     Question

     Which Windows command shows the current IP configuration?

     Réponse

     ipconfig. Add /all when you need details such as DHCP, DNS, gateway, and adapter addresses.

278. Carte 278

     Question

     What is the main benefit of deploying an OS image?

     Réponse

     It applies a prepared, consistent system build to multiple devices. The image still needs compatible drivers, licensing, and post-deployment updates.

279. Carte 279

     Question

     Which console should you open to investigate recorded application, security, or system errors?

     Réponse

     Event Viewer. Filter by the relevant time, source, and event level instead of treating every warning as the cause.

280. Carte 280

     Question

     Which Windows file system supports permissions, encryption, compression, and large local volumes?

     Réponse

     NTFS. It is the standard Windows file system when you need access controls and other full desktop features.

281. Carte 281

     Question

     Which Windows edition fits a basic home PC that does not need business management features?

     Réponse

     Windows Home. It covers normal consumer use but lacks several business features found in Pro and Enterprise.

282. Carte 282

     Question

     What do the common macOS application forms .dmg, .pkg, and .app represent?

     Réponse

     A .dmg is a mountable disk image, a .pkg runs an installer, and an .app is an application bundle. Remove software with its supported process, especially when it installed system components.

283. Carte 283

     Question

     Which boot approach lets a technician start an installer delivered by a deployment server?

     Réponse

     Network boot, commonly PXE. The client firmware and network must support it, and the deployment service must be reachable.

284. Carte 284

     Question

     Which command is the quickest basic test of IP reachability to another host?

     Réponse

     ping. A failed ping is only a clue because the host or firewall may block echo traffic.

285. Carte 285

     Question

     Which Windows tool creates partitions, assigns drive letters, and initializes disks?

     Réponse

     Disk Management. Confirm the disk and volume before making changes because some operations can destroy data.

286. Carte 286

     Question

     What is safer than disabling Windows Firewall when one application is blocked?

     Réponse

     Create the narrowest required application or port exception. Keep the firewall enabled and limit the rule to the needed profiles and traffic.

287. Carte 287

     Question

     What should you compare before installing a demanding application?

     Réponse

     Compare its OS, CPU, RAM, storage, graphics, VRAM, and peripheral requirements with the device. Check both minimum and practical workload needs.

288. Carte 288

     Question

     Which Windows edition is the usual minimum for joining a business domain and hosting Remote Desktop?

     Réponse

     Windows Pro. It also adds business features such as BitLocker management and Local Group Policy.

289. Carte 289

     Question

     Which Windows command queries DNS records for a name?

     Réponse

     nslookup. It helps distinguish name-resolution trouble from basic network reachability.

290. Carte 290

     Question

     Which macOS feature creates versioned backups for normal file and system recovery?

     Réponse

     Time Machine. Confirm the backup destination is available and test that needed files can actually be restored.

291. Carte 291

     Question

     What makes zero-touch deployment different from a normal remote installation?

     Réponse

     Zero-touch deployment minimizes hands-on setup after the device starts. Policies, applications, and identity configuration are applied automatically.

292. Carte 292

     Question

     When is exFAT usually a better removable-drive format than FAT32?

     Réponse

     Use exFAT when the drive must move between modern operating systems and hold files larger than FAT32's 4 GB per-file limit.

293. Carte 293

     Question

     Which values must be correct in a manual IPv4 client configuration?

     Réponse

     The IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server settings must fit the network. A wrong value can break local or internet access.

294. Carte 294

     Question

     How do FileVault and Keychain serve different security jobs on macOS?

     Réponse

     FileVault encrypts the startup disk; Keychain stores passwords, certificates, and keys. Neither replaces good account security or backups.

295. Carte 295

     Question

     What should you verify before booting an installer from USB media?

     Réponse

     Verify the media is trusted and bootable, then select the correct temporary boot device. Also confirm the firmware mode matches the planned partition style.

296. Carte 296

     Question

     Which Windows console is best for checking a device's driver status or hardware error code?

     Réponse

     Device Manager. It shows detected hardware, driver details, disabled devices, and device error codes.

297. Carte 297

     Question

     When is Windows Enterprise a better fit than Pro?

     Réponse

     Use Enterprise for centrally managed organizations that need its additional security, deployment, and control features. It is licensed for organizational use rather than a typical retail PC.

298. Carte 298

     Question

     How does a domain differ from a workgroup for Windows client management?

     Réponse

     A domain provides centralized identity and policy; a workgroup manages accounts separately on each PC. Shared resources must match the chosen model.

299. Carte 299

     Question

     Which command shows active network connections and listening ports on Windows?

     Réponse

     netstat. Use its documented options to include process IDs or numeric addresses when needed.

300. Carte 300

     Question

     Which Windows tool runs a program or script on a trigger or schedule?

     Réponse

     Task Scheduler. Use it for defined triggers such as a time, startup, sign-in, or event.

301. Carte 301

     Question

     What must be assigned before a user can legally use many cloud productivity apps?

     Réponse

     The correct service license. Installation alone does not grant an account access to licensed features.

302. Carte 302

     Question

     What do /Applications, /Users, /Library, and /System hold on macOS?

     Réponse

     They hold installed apps, user home folders, shared support data, and protected system components, respectively. A user's own Library sits inside that user's home folder.

303. Carte 303

     Question

     What path format directly identifies a Windows network share?

     Réponse

     A UNC path such as \\server\share. A mapped drive gives that share a drive letter for convenience.

304. Carte 304

     Question

     Why can a 32-bit-only dependency block an otherwise capable 64-bit system?

     Réponse

     The application may rely on an unsupported 32-bit component or driver. Confirm the complete dependency chain, not just the CPU architecture.

305. Carte 305

     Question

     Which file systems are common on Linux desktops and servers?

     Réponse

     ext4 and XFS. Both are Linux-native choices; support for features and repair tools depends on the distribution and workload.

306. Carte 306

     Question

     What workload is Windows Pro for Workstations aimed at?

     Réponse

     High-end professional hardware and demanding workloads. It adds support intended for workstation-class processors, memory, and storage features.

307. Carte 307

     Question

     Why synchronize identity between an organization and a cloud productivity service?

     Réponse

     It keeps user accounts and access aligned with the organization's identity source. Provisioning and removal can then follow the user's lifecycle.

308. Carte 308

     Question

     When should you try a repair installation or recovery environment?

     Réponse

     Use it when the current OS is damaged but preserving the installation is still reasonable. Back up recoverable data before making larger changes.

309. Carte 309

     Question

     Which Windows command traces the router hops toward a destination?

     Réponse

     tracert. Use pathping when you also need sampled latency and loss information across the route.

310. Carte 310

     Question

     Why should mobile apps come from the platform's trusted store or an approved enterprise source?

     Réponse

     Trusted sources provide stronger publisher, signing, and review checks. Sideloading from an unknown source raises the risk of a malicious or altered app.

311. Carte 311

     Question

     What is distinctive about a Windows N edition?

     Réponse

     It omits certain built-in media technologies. An application that depends on those components may need Microsoft's media feature package.

312. Carte 312

     Question

     Which partition style is the normal choice for a modern UEFI system?

     Réponse

     GPT. It supports modern UEFI booting, large disks, and more partitions than legacy MBR.

313. Carte 313

     Question

     What should you confirm when setting up a cloud storage sync folder?

     Réponse

     Confirm the account, selected folders, local disk impact, sharing rules, and whether files remain available offline.

314. Carte 314

     Question

     When does a dedicated GPU matter more than integrated graphics?

     Réponse

     It matters when the application requires more graphics performance or dedicated VRAM than the integrated GPU can provide.

315. Carte 315

     Question

     How do chmod and chown differ on Linux?

     Réponse

     chmod changes permission bits; chown changes file ownership. Verify the target and use elevated rights only when required.

316. Carte 316

     Question

     Which command checks a Windows volume's file-system structure for errors?

     Réponse

     chkdsk. Review its options before requesting repairs because a repair may need exclusive access or a restart.

317. Carte 317

     Question

     What is the difference between partitioning and formatting a drive?

     Réponse

     Partitioning defines logical regions on the drive; formatting creates a file system inside a partition. Both can affect existing data, so confirm the target first.

318. Carte 318

     Question

     What does a client VPN connection provide?

     Réponse

     It creates an encrypted path to a remote private network. The user still needs valid authentication and authorization for its resources.

319. Carte 319

     Question

     Which Linux package managers are common on Debian-based and Fedora-based systems?

     Réponse

     apt is common on Debian and Ubuntu; dnf is common on Fedora and related systems. Use authorized sudo elevation for administrative package changes instead of routine root login.

320. Carte 320

     Question

     When should you use Performance Monitor instead of only Task Manager?

     Réponse

     Use Performance Monitor when you need counters collected over time. Task Manager is better for a quick live snapshot.

321. Carte 321

     Question

     Which Windows command-line tool manages disks, partitions, and volumes?

     Réponse

     diskpart. Select and verify the exact disk before any destructive command.

322. Carte 322

     Question

     Which firmware and security components are central to Windows 11 hardware eligibility?

     Réponse

     UEFI with Secure Boot capability and a supported TPM 2.0 are central requirements. The processor, RAM, and storage must also meet Microsoft's current requirements.

323. Carte 323

     Question

     What should you verify before a mobile OS upgrade?

     Réponse

     Check device support, free storage, battery or power, network access, app compatibility, and a current backup.

324. Carte 324

     Question

     Why mark a Windows connection as metered?

     Réponse

     It tells Windows to limit some background transfers on a connection with a data cap or high cost. Updates and cloud sync may behave differently.

325. Carte 325

     Question

     Which file system is designed for current Apple storage devices?

     Réponse

     APFS. It is Apple's modern file system for macOS and other Apple platforms.

326. Carte 326

     Question

     Which Linux commands distinguish free filesystem space from a directory's space use?

     Réponse

     df reports filesystem free space; du estimates space used by files and directories. Use both when tracking down a full disk.

327. Carte 327

     Question

     What belongs in an OS upgrade preflight check?

     Réponse

     Back up user data and settings, then verify hardware, applications, drivers, storage, licensing, and the supported upgrade path.

328. Carte 328

     Question

     Why should Windows show known file extensions during support work?

     Réponse

     Visible extensions make file types easier to verify and help expose misleading names such as invoice.pdf.exe.

329. Carte 329

     Question

     What is the safest source for an application installer?

     Réponse

     Use the vendor's trusted store or official download channel. Verify the publisher, signature, or published hash when available.

330. Carte 330

     Question

     Which Windows command is built for reliable folder copying with restart and mirror options?

     Réponse

     robocopy. Treat mirror or purge options carefully because they can delete destination files that are absent from the source.

331. Carte 331

     Question

     Why should you verify the supported Windows edition upgrade path before starting?

     Réponse

     Not every source edition can upgrade directly to every target edition. An unsupported path may require a clean install instead.

332. Carte 332

     Question

     Which Windows tool helps isolate startup problems by controlling boot and service options?

     Réponse

     System Configuration (msconfig). Use selective startup for diagnosis, then restore the intended configuration after testing.

333. Carte 333

     Question

     What should a technician test before rolling out cloud videoconferencing?

     Réponse

     Test supported devices, camera and microphone permissions, network capacity, sign-in, and any organization policy.

334. Carte 334

     Question

     What does an operating system reaching end of life mean for support?

     Réponse

     The vendor no longer provides normal support or security updates. Plan a supported upgrade or replacement instead of treating the old system as safe indefinitely.

335. Carte 335

     Question

     Which Windows command checks protected system files and replaces damaged copies?

     Réponse

     sfc /scannow. Run it from an elevated terminal and review the result before deciding the next repair step.

336. Carte 336

     Question

     What is the purpose of a Microsoft Management Console snap-in?

     Réponse

     It adds a focused administrative tool to an MMC console. Event Viewer, Local Users and Groups, and Certificate Manager are common examples.

337. Carte 337

     Question

     What is the purpose of a mobile configuration profile?

     Réponse

     It applies managed settings such as accounts, certificates, restrictions, and security rules. Install profiles only from an authorized administrator or trusted provider.

338. Carte 338

     Question

     What is ReFS mainly designed to improve on supported Windows systems?

     Réponse

     Storage resilience and data integrity. ReFS is useful for supported data workloads, but it is not a universal replacement for an NTFS Windows boot volume.

339. Carte 339

     Question

     Why pilot a business application before a broad rollout?

     Réponse

     A pilot exposes device, network, workflow, licensing, and compatibility effects on a small group before they reach everyone.

340. Carte 340

     Question

     Why check sharing permissions before moving a document into a collaboration workspace?

     Réponse

     The move may change who can read or edit it. Confirm the intended audience, link settings, ownership, and version history.

341. Carte 341

     Question

     Which physical control stops a vehicle from driving close to a protected entrance?

     Réponse

     Bollards. They create a physical barrier while still allowing pedestrian access.

342. Carte 342

     Question

     What is the main sign that a message may be phishing?

     Réponse

     It tries to push you into revealing data, opening a file, or following a link under false pretenses. Verify the request through a known channel.

343. Carte 343

     Question

     What protects workstation data if a powered-off drive is stolen?

     Réponse

     Data-at-rest encryption, such as BitLocker or FileVault. Store recovery keys through an approved process.

344. Carte 344

     Question

     What is the first step in a suspected malware case?

     Réponse

     Investigate and verify the symptoms. Record what happened and rule out ordinary faults before declaring the system infected.

345. Carte 345

     Question

     What is the purpose of an access control vestibule?

     Réponse

     It allows one controlled door to close before the next opens. This reduces tailgating into a secure area.

346. Carte 346

     Question

     How do spear phishing and whaling differ from broad phishing?

     Réponse

     Spear phishing targets a specific person or group; whaling targets senior or high-value people. Both use tailored context to appear credible.

347. Carte 347

     Question

     Which password properties matter most for normal user accounts?

     Réponse

     Use long, unique passwords and store them in an approved password manager. Complexity and expiration rules should follow current organization policy.

348. Carte 348

     Question

     Why is a normal format not enough before transferring a drive with sensitive data?

     Réponse

     A standard format mainly rebuilds file-system structures and may leave recoverable data. Use an approved wipe, secure erase, encryption-key destruction, or physical destruction method.

349. Carte 349

     Question

     What makes a Trojan different from a computer virus?

     Réponse

     A Trojan pretends to be legitimate so the user installs or runs it. A virus attaches its code to a host file or boot area and replicates when that code runs.

350. Carte 350

     Question

     Why combine a badge reader with a biometric check at a sensitive door?

     Réponse

     The combination verifies something the person has and something they are. It is stronger than either factor alone.

351. Carte 351

     Question

     What does a BIOS or UEFI password protect?

     Réponse

     It limits unauthorized firmware changes or startup access. It does not encrypt files on the drive.

352. Carte 352

     Question

     Which phishing names apply to voice calls, text messages, and malicious QR codes?

     Réponse

     Vishing uses voice, smishing uses SMS or messaging, and QR phishing uses a code to hide the destination. Verify the request before acting.

353. Carte 353

     Question

     What should you do once a malware infection is reasonably confirmed?

     Réponse

     Quarantine the device from networks and shared storage. Preserve any evidence required by policy while limiting further spread.

354. Carte 354

     Question

     Which malware hides deeply in a system to preserve privileged access?

     Réponse

     A rootkit. Because it can conceal processes or changes, trusted offline scanning or reimaging may be required.

355. Carte 355

     Question

     What simple action protects an unattended signed-in workstation?

     Réponse

     Lock the screen. Use an automatic timeout as a backup, and log off when the session is no longer needed.

356. Carte 356

     Question

     What do cameras, guards, alarms, lighting, and motion sensors contribute to physical security?

     Réponse

     They deter, detect, record, or respond to unauthorized activity. They work best as layers rather than a single control.

357. Carte 357

     Question

     What attack occurs when someone watches a user enter sensitive information?

     Réponse

     Shoulder surfing. Privacy screens, careful positioning, and awareness reduce the risk.

358. Carte 358

     Question

     How should you verify a browser download before running it?

     Réponse

     Use a trusted source, confirm the publisher or signature, and compare a published hash when available. A matching hash proves integrity, not that the publisher is trustworthy.

359. Carte 359

     Question

     What does a computer virus need in order to spread?

     Réponse

     A virus attaches to a host file or boot area and spreads when that infected code runs. A boot-sector virus targets startup data.

360. Carte 360

     Question

     When is a secure erase preferable to physical destruction?

     Réponse

     Use a verified secure erase when the storage device will be reused and the method fits its media type. Validate the result before reassignment.

361. Carte 361

     Question

     How does tailgating differ from impersonation?

     Réponse

     Tailgating follows an authorized person into a restricted area; impersonation claims a false identity to gain trust or access.

362. Carte 362

     Question

     What does the principle of least privilege require?

     Réponse

     Give an account only the access needed for its current job, for only as long as needed. Review and remove unnecessary rights.

363. Carte 363

     Question

     What does spoofing change to make a message, host, or caller look trusted?

     Réponse

     It forges identifying information such as an address, name, number, or source. Verify identity through a separate trusted signal.

364. Carte 364

     Question

     Which Wi-Fi security protocol is the preferred modern choice when all devices support it?

     Réponse

     WPA3. Use its strongest supported mode and a strong credential or enterprise authentication.

365. Carte 365

     Question

     How does a DDoS attack differ from a DoS attack?

     Réponse

     A DDoS attack uses many distributed sources; a DoS attack may come from one source. Both aim to exhaust availability.

366. Carte 366

     Question

     What assumption drives a Zero Trust access decision?

     Réponse

     No user, device, or network location is trusted automatically. Verify identity, device state, context, and authorization for each access decision.

367. Carte 367

     Question

     Which physical methods make a hard drive unusable?

     Réponse

     Approved shredding or drilling can destroy the platters and mechanism. Follow safety, environmental, and evidence-handling rules.

368. Carte 368

     Question

     How do account lockout and account expiration solve different problems?

     Réponse

     Lockout slows repeated failed sign-ins; expiration ends access after a defined date. Set both according to business policy.

369. Carte 369

     Question

     Which malware categories secretly monitor a user's activity?

     Réponse

     Spyware collects activity or data; a keylogger records input; stalkerware is used for covert surveillance of a person.

370. Carte 370

     Question

     What wireless threat presents a convincing fake access point?

     Réponse

     An evil twin. Users may connect to it because its network name resembles a trusted one.

371. Carte 371

     Question

     What are the first security changes on a new SOHO router?

     Réponse

     Change default administrator credentials, update firmware, and save a known-good configuration. Use a unique management password.

372. Carte 372

     Question

     What should you do when a browser reports an invalid certificate on a sensitive site?

     Réponse

     Stop and verify the address, system time, and certificate details. Do not bypass the warning for sign-in or payment data.

373. Carte 373

     Question

     What does an access control list decide?

     Réponse

     An ACL states which identities or traffic are allowed or denied on a resource. Keep entries specific and review inherited rules.

374. Carte 374

     Question

     Which malware blocks access to data and demands payment?

     Réponse

     Ransomware. Isolate the device quickly and recover from known-good backups rather than assuming payment will restore data.

375. Carte 375

     Question

     How should router management access be exposed?

     Réponse

     Allow it only from trusted interfaces and secure protocols, ideally from the local network. Place the router where unauthorized people cannot reset or replace it.

376. Carte 376

     Question

     How should Windows restore points be handled during an approved malware-removal workflow?

     Réponse

     Temporarily disable System Restore when the procedure calls for it, then re-enable it and create a clean restore point after remediation.

377. Carte 377

     Question

     Which built-in accounts or credentials should be changed or disabled during setup?

     Réponse

     Disable the guest account when unused and replace default administrator names or passwords where policy requires it. Never leave vendor defaults active.

378. Carte 378

     Question

     What happens in an on-path attack?

     Réponse

     The attacker positions themselves between communicating parties to observe or alter traffic. Strong certificate validation and encryption help prevent it.

379. Carte 379

     Question

     How do browser patches and extension controls work together?

     Réponse

     Patches fix browser flaws; extension controls reduce code from untrusted add-ons. Keep only approved, necessary extensions.

380. Carte 380

     Question

     How should a guest wireless network be separated from trusted devices?

     Réponse

     Use a separate guest network with strong encryption and client isolation. Do not grant it access to internal files or management interfaces.

381. Carte 381

     Question

     Why disable AutoRun and unused services?

     Réponse

     They remove automatic execution paths and unnecessary attack surface. Confirm a service is not required before disabling it.

382. Carte 382

     Question

     Which storage media can degaussing sanitize?

     Réponse

     Magnetic media such as compatible hard drives and tapes, but only with an approved degausser rated for that exact medium. Flash storage such as SSDs cannot be sanitized this way. A drive becoming unusable does not prove its data was sanitized; follow and validate the approved procedure.

383. Carte 383

     Question

     Why update anti-malware tools before the main removal scan?

     Réponse

     Current definitions and engines can recognize newer threats. Scan in a safer environment, such as Safe Mode or approved recovery media, when appropriate.

384. Carte 384

     Question

     What makes authentication multifactor?

     Réponse

     It uses factors from at least two different categories, such as a password plus a hardware token or biometric. Two passwords are still one factor type.

385. Carte 385

     Question

     Which encryption choice is appropriate for a WPA2 network?

     Réponse

     AES-based CCMP. Avoid selecting older TKIP just to keep obsolete clients connected.

386. Carte 386

     Question

     What is the basic endpoint patching sequence?

     Réponse

     Inventory supported systems, deploy tested OS and application updates, verify success, and remediate failures. Endpoint security definitions need updates too.

387. Carte 387

     Question

     Why should daily work use a standard account instead of an administrator account?

     Réponse

     A standard account limits what mistakes or malware can change. Elevate only the specific approved task through UAC or Run as administrator.

388. Carte 388

     Question

     When is reimaging safer than continuing to clean an infected PC?

     Réponse

     Reimage when trust cannot be restored, the malware is deeply embedded, or policy requires a known-good build. Restore only verified clean data.

389. Carte 389

     Question

     Why is TKIP a poor choice for a new wireless network?

     Réponse

     TKIP is a legacy protocol with known security limits. Replace incompatible clients and use WPA2-AES or WPA3.

390. Carte 390

     Question

     When is incineration an acceptable data-destruction method?

     Réponse

     Only through an authorized facility that can handle the material safely and meet legal and environmental requirements.

391. Carte 391

     Question

     What does private browsing protect on a shared computer?

     Réponse

     It reduces local history and cookie retention after the session. It does not hide activity from the network or service, so sign out and clear sensitive data as policy requires.

392. Carte 392

     Question

     How does a dictionary attack differ from a general brute-force attack?

     Réponse

     A dictionary attack tries likely words and known password patterns; brute force systematically tries possibilities. Long, unique passwords and rate limits make both harder.

393. Carte 393

     Question

     How do SSO and SAML commonly work together?

     Réponse

     SSO lets one sign-in reach multiple services; SAML can carry trusted authentication claims between an identity provider and a service.

394. Carte 394

     Question

     Why disable UPnP and unused inbound ports when they are not required?

     Réponse

     They can create unnecessary paths into the network. Open only the specific service and source access the business needs.

395. Carte 395

     Question

     What symptom often points to an unauthorized cryptominer?

     Réponse

     Unexplained sustained CPU or GPU use, heat, fan noise, or power consumption. Confirm the process before removal.

396. Carte 396

     Question

     What should an outsourced destruction vendor provide?

     Réponse

     A traceable certificate of destruction or recycling tied to the assets. Confirm the vendor and chain of custody before release.

397. Carte 397

     Question

     When is just-in-time privileged access safer than a standing admin account?

     Réponse

     It grants elevated rights only for an approved task and limited time. Privileged access management can control and record that elevation.

398. Carte 398

     Question

     What follow-up checks belong after malware removal?

     Réponse

     Run updated scans, patch the system, schedule ongoing scans and updates, and verify normal behavior before reconnecting fully.

399. Carte 399

     Question

     Which input flaws commonly enable SQL injection and cross-site scripting?

     Réponse

     SQL injection reaches a database through unsafe query input; XSS injects script into content a browser renders. Use parameterized queries for SQL and context-aware output encoding for browser content.

400. Carte 400

     Question

     Which mobile controls help after a managed phone is lost?

     Réponse

     A locator, remote lock or wipe, device encryption, and a current remote backup. Test enrollment before the device disappears.

401. Carte 401

     Question

     Which control is designed to detect or block sensitive data from leaving approved boundaries?

     Réponse

     Data loss prevention, or DLP. It applies rules to data in use, in motion, or at rest according to policy.

402. Carte 402

     Question

     When is port forwarding appropriate on a small network?

     Réponse

     Use it only for an approved service that must receive inbound traffic. Prefer a screened subnet or other isolation for exposed systems, and document the narrow rule.

403. Carte 403

     Question

     Why can fileless malware be hard to detect?

     Réponse

     It relies heavily on memory and legitimate system tools instead of leaving a normal executable on disk. Behavior monitoring is especially useful.

404. Carte 404

     Question

     Why are unpatched, end-of-life, or unmanaged BYOD systems a security risk?

     Réponse

     They may lack current fixes, controls, or visibility. Enforce support and access policy instead of assuming a connected device is safe.

405. Carte 405

     Question

     What must guide disposal of batteries, storage devices, and electronics?

     Réponse

     Applicable data-retention, privacy, environmental, and recycling rules. Record asset disposition according to policy.

406. Carte 406

     Question

     What should an email security gateway do before a message reaches the user?

     Réponse

     Filter suspicious senders, links, attachments, and spoofing signals. Users should still verify unusual requests through a known channel.

407. Carte 407

     Question

     Which service commonly provides centralized authentication for enterprise Wi-Fi?

     Réponse

     RADIUS. It validates users or devices against a central identity source; TACACS+ is more commonly associated with network-device administration.

408. Carte 408

     Question

     How does MDM reduce risk on BYOD and corporate-owned mobile devices?

     Réponse

     MDM applies profiles, screen-lock rules, updates, app controls, and remote actions. The policy should clearly separate company requirements from personal privacy.

409. Carte 409

     Question

     How does a potentially unwanted program differ from clearly malicious malware?

     Réponse

     A PUP may be installed with nominal consent but still adds unwanted behavior, such as aggressive ads or browser changes. Remove it through approved tools and review bundled installers.

410. Carte 410

     Question

     What should the technician explain to the user after a malware incident?

     Réponse

     Explain the likely entry point and practical prevention steps, such as safer links, trusted downloads, updates, and prompt reporting.

411. Carte 411

     Question

     What is the first useful action after a Windows blue-screen crash?

     Réponse

     Record the stop code and recent changes, then check relevant logs and dumps. Do not replace hardware from the blue screen alone.

412. Carte 412

     Question

     What should you try first when one mobile app will not launch?

     Réponse

     Force-close the app, reopen it, and check for an update. If the problem persists, restart the device and verify the app still supports the OS.

413. Carte 413

     Question

     What should you do after finding an unapproved app already installed on a managed phone?

     Réponse

     Document it and follow policy to block or remove it through the approved mobile-management process. Do not open it for testing; if compromise is plausible, contain the phone and escalate before wiping evidence.

414. Carte 414

     Question

     What should you do if a possibly infected PC suddenly cannot reach the network?

     Réponse

     Check ordinary link and IP status, but keep the PC isolated if compromise is plausible. Do not weaken the firewall just to restore access.

415. Carte 415

     Question

     Where should you start when Windows feels broadly slow?

     Réponse

     Check Task Manager for CPU, memory, disk, and startup pressure. Correlate the bottleneck with recent apps, updates, storage, and temperature.

416. Carte 416

     Question

     How should you handle a mobile app that repeatedly crashes while in use?

     Réponse

     Reproduce the trigger, free needed resources, update the app and OS, and clear supported app cache or reinstall after protecting its data.

417. Carte 417

     Question

     Why should developer mode be disabled on a normal user's mobile device?

     Réponse

     It can expose debugging, installation, or control paths that normal operation does not need. Enable it only for an authorized task and turn it off afterward.

418. Carte 418

     Question

     What do unfamiliar security alerts on the Windows desktop require?

     Réponse

     Verify which installed product or process created them. Capture the message and avoid clicking it until its source is trusted.

419. Carte 419

     Question

     What should you try when Windows reaches recovery but not the normal desktop?

     Réponse

     Use Startup Repair or Safe Mode to isolate the boot problem. Back up accessible data before risky repair steps.

420. Carte 420

     Question

     What commonly blocks a mobile app update?

     Réponse

     Low storage, poor connectivity, account or store issues, device policy, or OS incompatibility. Read the exact store error before changing settings.

421. Carte 421

     Question

     What security boundary changes when a phone is rooted or jailbroken?

     Réponse

     Platform protections and app isolation may be bypassed. Treat the device as noncompliant and restore it through an approved process.

422. Carte 422

     Question

     How can you recognize a fake antivirus warning?

     Réponse

     It often uses urgent claims, an unfamiliar brand, or a demand to click, call, or pay. Open the approved security tool directly instead of using the alert.

423. Carte 423

     Question

     What does a firmware message saying no operating system was found suggest checking first?

     Réponse

     Check whether the system drive is detected and first in the intended boot order. Then inspect its connection, partition, and boot data.

424. Carte 424

     Question

     What should you verify when a mobile app will not install?

     Réponse

     Verify the source, device and OS compatibility, free storage, account licensing, and management policy.

425. Carte 425

     Question

     What clues suggest a mobile app is spoofing a legitimate one?

     Réponse

     A mismatched publisher, unusual icon or name, excessive permissions, unexpected sign-in, or an unofficial source. Verify the real listing before entering credentials.

426. Carte 426

     Question

     What can unexplained renamed or missing personal files indicate?

     Réponse

     Malware, ransomware, account misuse, sync trouble, or storage failure are possible. Isolate the scope and preserve evidence before recovery attempts.

427. Carte 427

     Question

     What evidence helps separate thermal shutdowns from power failures?

     Réponse

     Review temperatures, fan operation, vents, power events, and whether the failure follows load. Test one likely cause at a time.

428. Carte 428

     Question

     Where should you start with a generally slow phone or tablet?

     Réponse

     Check free storage, active downloads, background apps, battery condition, and pending updates. Restart before considering a reset.

429. Carte 429

     Question

     What should unexplained high mobile network traffic make you inspect?

     Réponse

     Inspect per-app data use, recent installations, cloud sync, hotspots, and management alerts. Isolate the device if malicious traffic is plausible.

430. Carte 430

     Question

     What does sudden inability to open many files suggest checking?

     Réponse

     Check extensions, ransom notes, permissions, storage health, and backup status. Widespread encryption may indicate ransomware.

431. Carte 431

     Question

     What should you inspect when a Windows service will not start?

     Réponse

     Check its startup type, dependencies, logon account, permissions, and Event Viewer message. Fix the recorded cause rather than repeatedly forcing a start.

432. Carte 432

     Question

     A mobile OS update downloads but fails verification or installation. What should you try before resetting the device?

     Réponse

     Record the exact error and check free storage first. Then use the OS vendor's supported controls to remove the incomplete update and download a fresh copy with reliable power and a stable network connection; use recovery only if the normal updater still fails.

433. Carte 433

     Question

     How can security trouble cause degraded mobile response time?

     Réponse

     A malicious or unwanted app may consume CPU, storage, or network resources. Compare resource use with recent apps before removing anything.

434. Carte 434

     Question

     Where should you investigate unwanted Windows notifications?

     Réponse

     Check notification settings, browser site permissions, startup apps, and recently installed software. Remove the source rather than only muting the symptom.

435. Carte 435

     Question

     How should you isolate an application that keeps crashing?

     Réponse

     Confirm the scope, reproduce it, check logs, update the app, and test its plug-ins or profile. Reinstall only after preserving needed settings and data.

436. Carte 436

     Question

     How do you find the likely cause of sudden mobile battery drain?

     Réponse

     Review battery usage by app and system feature, then compare with recent updates, signal conditions, screen use, and battery health.

437. Carte 437

     Question

     What should you check after an unexpected mobile data-limit notification?

     Réponse

     Review per-app usage and the billing period, then inspect background sync, hotspot use, updates, and unknown apps.

438. Carte 438

     Question

     Why can repeated OS update failures be a security clue?

     Réponse

     Malware may block updates, though storage, network, or service faults are also common. Investigate the exact error and other symptoms before deciding.

439. Carte 439

     Question

     What should a low-memory warning lead you to inspect?

     Réponse

     Inspect memory pressure, runaway processes, page-file health, and workload requirements. Closing one app may help briefly but does not explain repeated warnings.

440. Carte 440

     Question

     What is a useful first isolation step for random mobile reboots?

     Réponse

     Remove or disable the most recent app or configuration change, update the OS, and check storage and temperature. Back up before a reset.

441. Carte 441

     Question

     What security setting can cause limited mobile internet access even with a good signal?

     Réponse

     A bad VPN, proxy, DNS, content-filtering, or management profile can restrict traffic. Compare the configuration with approved policy.

442. Carte 442

     Question

     What is a useful first check for random browser pop-ups?

     Réponse

     Inspect site-notification permissions, extensions, startup pages, and recently installed software. Do not click inside the pop-up.

443. Carte 443

     Question

     What is a sensible first response to a USB controller resource warning?

     Réponse

     Disconnect nonessential USB devices, remove unpowered hubs, and check Device Manager. Then update the controller or chipset driver if the evidence supports it.

444. Carte 444

     Question

     What is the normal first fix for a Bluetooth pairing problem?

     Réponse

     Confirm both devices are discoverable and compatible, then forget the old pairing and pair again. Check distance, battery, and interference.

445. Carte 445

     Question

     What should you do if normal connectivity checks pass but a phone still has no internet after a suspicious app install?

     Réponse

     Isolate the phone, remove or quarantine the suspicious app through the approved process, and inspect VPN, proxy, DNS, and profile changes.

446. Carte 446

     Question

     When does a browser certificate warning point to more than a bad website?

     Réponse

     Warnings across several known-good sites can indicate wrong system time, interception, a proxy, or a trust-store problem. Compare on a trusted network and device.

447. Carte 447

     Question

     What should you do when instability begins right after a driver update?

     Réponse

     Roll back or replace that driver with a known-good supported version. Confirm stability before changing another component.

448. Carte 448

     Question

     What should you check when one phone cannot join a known Wi-Fi network?

     Réponse

     Confirm the network and password, toggle Wi-Fi, forget and rejoin the network, then compare with another device before resetting network settings.

449. Carte 449

     Question

     What commonly causes a sudden flood of ads across a mobile device?

     Réponse

     Adware or a PUP is likely, especially after a recent install. Identify the responsible app instead of tapping the ads.

450. Carte 450

     Question

     What settings should you inspect when browser searches redirect unexpectedly?

     Réponse

     Inspect the default search provider, home page, extensions, proxy, DNS, and hosts file. Record unauthorized changes before correcting them.

451. Carte 451

     Question

     How can you test whether a slow Windows sign-in is tied to one user profile?

     Réponse

     Sign in with a known-good local profile and compare. Then inspect profile corruption, startup items, scripts, and redirected resources.

452. Carte 452

     Question

     What should you check when NFC works only intermittently?

     Réponse

     Confirm NFC is enabled, unlock the device if required, align the NFC areas closely, and remove a case that may block the signal.

453. Carte 453

     Question

     How should you respond to a mobile pop-up claiming the device is infected?

     Réponse

     Treat it as a likely fake security warning. Do not tap its button; close the source, inspect recent apps or browser data, and scan with approved tools.

454. Carte 454

     Question

     What should you compare when mobile data fails but Wi-Fi works?

     Réponse

     Check airplane mode, cellular enablement, signal, data limits, SIM or eSIM state, carrier settings, and any provider outage.

455. Carte 455

     Question

     What is the priority when personal files appear to have leaked from a mobile device?

     Réponse

     Contain the device and affected accounts, preserve relevant evidence, and follow the incident process. Revoke exposed sessions or credentials from a trusted device.

456. Carte 456

     Question

     Why might a mobile screen refuse to rotate?

     Réponse

     Rotation lock may be enabled, the app may not support that orientation, or a motion sensor may be stuck. Check the setting before hardware diagnosis.

457. Carte 457

     Question

     What can unexpected mobile actions, permission prompts, or settings changes indicate?

     Réponse

     An unauthorized or compromised app may be acting on the device. Review recent installs, permissions, profiles, and account activity.

458. Carte 458

     Question

     What makes a browser extension suspicious?

     Réponse

     An unknown publisher, broad permissions, forced installation, hidden controls, or behavior unrelated to its stated job. Remove it through policy and inspect related changes.

459. Carte 459

     Question

     What should you verify when a Windows update repeatedly fails?

     Réponse

     Check free space, restart state, network access, update history, and the specific error. Apply the vendor's targeted repair steps for that code.

460. Carte 460

     Question

     When should you reset a mobile device during troubleshooting?

     Réponse

     Reset only after narrower fixes fail and a current backup exists. Confirm account credentials and management enrollment needed for recovery.

461. Carte 461

     Question

     What causes system time to drift repeatedly after shutdown?

     Réponse

     A failing CMOS battery is one possibility; a bad time source or synchronization setting is another. Check when the drift occurs before replacing anything.

462. Carte 462

     Question

     What PC settings can malware alter to reroute traffic?

     Réponse

     Proxy, DNS, browser, and hosts-file settings are common targets. Compare them with the approved network configuration.

463. Carte 463

     Question

     How can a clean boot help with a Windows startup problem?

     Réponse

     It starts Windows with a reduced set of nonessential services and startup items. Re-enable items in groups to identify the conflict.

464. Carte 464

     Question

     How should you troubleshoot a browser that has become much slower than the rest of the PC?

     Réponse

     Test without unneeded extensions, clear only appropriate cache data, check browser tasks, and compare a clean profile. Scan if the behavior is suspicious.

465. Carte 465

     Question

     What is the safest next step when several mobile security symptoms appear together?

     Réponse

     Disconnect or contain the device, document the symptoms, and escalate through the approved security process. Avoid wiping evidence unless the response plan authorizes it.

466. Carte 466

     Question

     Which details belong at the start of a support ticket?

     Réponse

     Record the user, device, contact method, affected service, and a clear issue description. Add the time and business impact when relevant.

467. Carte 467

     Question

     When is sfc /scannow a useful Windows repair step?

     Réponse

     Use it when protected system files may be damaged. Run it elevated and follow the result instead of assuming it fixes every boot or application fault.

468. Carte 468

     Question

     What should you do before running a repair that may change a failing Windows disk?

     Réponse

     Protect recoverable data first, then check drive health and file-system evidence. A repair tool is not a substitute for replacing failing storage.

469. Carte 469

     Question

     What is the right overall response to convincing PC security symptoms?

     Réponse

     Contain the system, document evidence, follow the malware or incident procedure, and restore trust with approved tools or a known-good image.

470. Carte 470

     Question

     What does a full backup contain?

     Réponse

     A full backup copies all selected data in that backup set. It is simple to restore but usually takes the most time and space to create.

471. Carte 471

     Question

     Where should a technician look for handling and disposal guidance for a chemical product?

     Réponse

     Use its current Safety Data Sheet and local policy. Follow the listed protective, spill, storage, and disposal instructions.

472. Carte 472

     Question

     What should a change request state before technical planning begins?

     Réponse

     State the purpose, scope, change type, affected systems, owner, and desired date. A clear request makes impact and approval review possible.

473. Carte 473

     Question

     What does active listening look like in a support conversation?

     Réponse

     Let the customer finish, ask focused questions, and restate the problem to confirm understanding. Avoid interrupting or jumping to a diagnosis.

474. Carte 474

     Question

     What does chain of custody record during an incident?

     Réponse

     It records who collected, handled, transferred, stored, and accessed evidence, with dates and purpose. This supports integrity and accountability.

475. Carte 475

     Question

     What makes a ticket issue description useful to another technician?

     Réponse

     It states expected and actual behavior, exact symptoms, scope, timing, and reproducible steps without guesses presented as facts.

476. Carte 476

     Question

     What does an incremental backup copy?

     Réponse

     It copies data changed since the most recent backup of any type. Backup runs are small, but recovery may need the last full plus every later incremental.

477. Carte 477

     Question

     How should a technician respond to an angry customer?

     Réponse

     Stay calm, acknowledge the impact, clarify the facts, and explain realistic next steps. Do not argue, blame, or dismiss the concern.

478. Carte 478

     Question

     Why does order of volatility matter when collecting incident evidence?

     Réponse

     More temporary data can disappear first. Follow the response plan to capture volatile information before less volatile storage when authorized.

479. Carte 479

     Question

     Which script type is native to traditional Windows batch command processing?

     Réponse

     A .bat file. VBScript uses .vbs for older Windows automation; review either script before running it with elevated rights.

480. Carte 480

     Question

     How do ventilation and dust control affect equipment reliability?

     Réponse

     Clear airflow removes heat; controlled dust cleanup prevents blocked vents and conductive buildup. Use equipment-safe compressed air or vacuums.

481. Carte 481

     Question

     How should severity and escalation be recorded?

     Réponse

     Tie severity to impact and urgency, then use the defined escalation level. Do not inflate it just to move the ticket faster.

482. Carte 482

     Question

     Why create a forensic copy instead of investigating the original drive directly?

     Réponse

     A verified copy preserves the original evidence and lets analysis proceed with less risk of alteration. Follow authorization and incident policy.

483. Carte 483

     Question

     When is RDP a suitable remote-access choice?

     Réponse

     Use RDP for an authorized Windows desktop session over a protected path. Limit exposed services, require strong authentication, and follow session policy.

484. Carte 484

     Question

     How should an ESD strap be used during internal PC work?

     Réponse

     Attach it to an approved ground point while working on powered-down equipment. Pair it with an ESD-safe work surface when available.

485. Carte 485

     Question

     What protection does a UPS add beyond a surge suppressor?

     Réponse

     A UPS provides temporary battery power and usually power conditioning, giving equipment time to ride through a brief outage or shut down safely.

486. Carte 486

     Question

     What should progress and resolution notes contain?

     Réponse

     Record tests, results, changes, timestamps, and the confirmed outcome. Another technician should be able to continue without repeating work.

487. Carte 487

     Question

     Which data categories usually require stricter handling and retention rules?

     Réponse

     Payment data, government identifiers, personally identifiable information, and healthcare data. Apply the relevant law, contract, and business policy.

488. Carte 488

     Question

     Which support tasks can AI assist without making the final decision?

     Réponse

     AI can help summarize tickets, draft user instructions, search approved knowledge, or suggest diagnostic paths. A technician must verify the result.

489. Carte 489

     Question

     What is the first electrical-safety step before repairing a PC?

     Réponse

     Shut it down and disconnect power. Follow the device's service procedure because some components can retain hazardous energy.

490. Carte 490

     Question

     How do SSH and VNC differ for remote support?

     Réponse

     SSH provides an encrypted command-line session; VNC shares a graphical desktop and needs its own secure transport and authentication configuration.

491. Carte 491

     Question

     How should a technician set expectations for a repair?

     Réponse

     Give a realistic timeline, explain options and dependencies, and send status updates when the estimate changes.

492. Carte 492

     Question

     Which script type gives Windows administrators structured access to system management?

     Réponse

     A PowerShell .ps1 script. Execution policy is not a malware boundary, so verify the source, signature, and contents.

493. Carte 493

     Question

     What does a differential backup copy?

     Réponse

     It copies data changed since the last full backup. Recovery normally needs the last full and the latest differential.

494. Carte 494

     Question

     Why do change plans need both a backup plan and a rollback plan?

     Réponse

     The backup protects data; the rollback returns the service to its prior state if the change fails. Define triggers and responsible staff before implementation.

495. Carte 495

     Question

     How should loose components be handled and stored?

     Réponse

     Hold boards by the edges, avoid contacts, and place them in antistatic packaging on an ESD-safe surface.

496. Carte 496

     Question

     Why monitor both temperature and humidity in an equipment room?

     Réponse

     Excess heat shortens component life; very low humidity raises static risk, while high humidity can cause condensation or corrosion.

497. Carte 497

     Question

     What is a synthetic full backup?

     Réponse

     It combines a previous full backup with later backup data to create a new full on the backup system. The source does not need to resend every file.

498. Carte 498

     Question

     How do an asset tag and a CMDB serve different support needs?

     Réponse

     The asset tag identifies the physical item; the CMDB records its configuration and relationships. Keep assignment, warranty, and licensing data current.

499. Carte 499

     Question

     What should a technician verify before installing licensed software?

     Réponse

     Verify a valid license, permitted user or device scope, and any EULA or DRM limits. Personal, corporate, perpetual, and open-source licenses grant different rights.

500. Carte 500

     Question

     Which script type is commonly used for shell automation on Linux and macOS?

     Réponse

     A .sh shell script. Its interpreter, permissions, quoting, and environment determine how it runs.

501. Carte 501

     Question

     How do GFS rotation and the 3-2-1 backup rule differ?

     Réponse

     GFS rotates daily, weekly, and monthly backup generations. The 3-2-1 rule keeps three copies on two different media/storage types, with one copy offsite. GFS organizes retention over time; 3-2-1 spreads copies across storage locations and failure modes.

502. Carte 502

     Question

     Which personal protective steps matter for lifting or dusty repair work?

     Réponse

     Use safe lifting technique and get help for heavy equipment; wear approved eye or breathing protection when the task creates those hazards.

503. Carte 503

     Question

     What does a VPN add to a remote-management session?

     Réponse

     It creates an encrypted network path to private resources. The remote tool still needs secure configuration, authentication, and least-privilege access.

504. Carte 504

     Question

     What policy questions should come before using AI at work?

     Réponse

     Check approved tools, allowed data, required disclosure, ownership rules, and whether the task permits AI assistance. Do not assume a public tool is approved.

505. Carte 505

     Question

     Why should a technician avoid jargon when speaking with a customer?

     Réponse

     Plain language helps the customer understand choices and give informed answers. Use a technical term only when it adds clarity, then explain it.

506. Carte 506

     Question

     What is the value of sandbox testing and peer review before a change?

     Réponse

     They expose technical mistakes and unexpected impact away from production. Record results and remaining risk.

507. Carte 507

     Question

     What are practical entry-level uses for scripts in support work?

     Réponse

     Scripts can collect information, remap drives, install approved apps, start updates, restart systems, or run backups consistently. Python .py and JavaScript .js files are common choices when the environment supports them.

508. Carte 508

     Question

     What is the benefit and main risk of an RMM platform?

     Réponse

     RMM can monitor and manage many endpoints centrally; compromise or misuse can reach many endpoints too. Protect the console with strong access controls, logging, and updates.

509. Carte 509

     Question

     How should a technician handle a confident AI answer?

     Réponse

     Verify it against trusted evidence. AI can hallucinate, carry bias, miss context, or present outdated information fluently.

510. Carte 510

     Question

     How do surges, brownouts, and blackouts differ?

     Réponse

     A surge is excess voltage, a brownout is reduced voltage, and a blackout is a loss of power. Match surge protection and UPS capacity to the equipment.

511. Carte 511

     Question

     What must you review before running an unfamiliar support script?

     Réponse

     Review its source, inputs, privileges, target systems, resource use, network actions, error handling, and rollback. A script can spread malware or change many systems quickly.

512. Carte 512

     Question

     How do an NDA and an acceptable use policy serve different purposes?

     Réponse

     An NDA restricts disclosure of protected information; an AUP defines permitted use of systems and data. Follow both along with incident and compliance rules.

513. Carte 513

     Question

     When should a normal change wait even if the technical work is ready?

     Réponse

     Wait for required approval and an allowed maintenance window. Respect change freezes unless the approved emergency process applies.

514. Carte 514

     Question

     Which support document should guide a repeatable task with an agreed method?

     Réponse

     Use the relevant SOP or checklist. Consult the SLA for service commitments and the knowledge base for reusable diagnosis or resolution guidance.

515. Carte 515

     Question

     What should a technician do if arriving late is unavoidable?

     Réponse

     Contact the customer promptly, give an honest revised time, and keep the new commitment. Document service provided and follow up as promised.

516. Carte 516

     Question

     What safety problems does good cable management prevent?

     Réponse

     It reduces trip hazards, blocked airflow, connector strain, and accidental disconnection. Keep cables clear of heat and emergency access.

517. Carte 517

     Question

     How do you know a backup is usable?

     Réponse

     Test restores on a defined schedule. Verify data integrity and practice both overwrite recovery and recovery to an alternative location.

518. Carte 518

     Question

     What closes a well-managed change?

     Réponse

     Verify the implementation, obtain required user acceptance, update documentation, and review the outcome. Trigger rollback if the defined failure criteria occur.

519. Carte 519

     Question

     How should a technician handle private material visible on a customer's device?

     Réponse

     View only what the task requires, avoid copying or discussing it, and follow privacy policy. Maintain professional appearance and conduct in the customer's environment.

520. Carte 520

     Question

     What data boundary applies when prompting a public AI service?

     Réponse

     Never send credentials or secrets to a public AI service. Keep private customer data, regulated data, proprietary code, and incident evidence out as well. An approved enterprise AI service is a separate case: use it only under the organization's data policy and contractual controls, and still never paste credentials or secrets.

520 cartes

CompTIA A+ 220-1201 & 220-1202 Flashcards: Core 1 and Core 2

Réviser ce paquet gratuitement

Nibomo s'ouvre pour que vous puissiez commencer à réviser.